HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. The nurse is preparing a female client for discharge after being treated for a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will use douches regularly to prevent future infections.
- B. I should drink at least 8 glasses of water a day.
- C. I should avoid tight-fitting clothing.
- D. I will wipe from front to back after using the toilet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using douches is not recommended as it can disrupt the natural flora and increase the risk of infections. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements that can help prevent UTIs. Drinking an adequate amount of water helps flush out bacteria, avoiding tight-fitting clothing promotes ventilation and reduces moisture, and wiping from front to back prevents the spread of bacteria from the anal region to the urethra.
2. A middle-aged woman talks to the nurse in the healthcare provider's office about uterine fibroids, also called leiomyomas or myomas. What statement by the woman indicates more education is needed?
- A. I am one out of every 4 women that get fibroids, and among women my age, between the 30s or 40s, fibroids occur more frequently.
- B. My fibroids are noncancerous tumors that grow slowly.
- C. The associated problems I have had are pelvic pressure and pain, urinary incontinence, frequent urination or urine retention, and constipation.
- D. Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because fibroids that do not cause symptoms do not necessarily need to be removed unless they pose other health risks. Choice A provides accurate information about the prevalence of fibroids among women of the woman's age group. Choice B correctly describes fibroids as noncancerous tumors. Choice C lists common symptoms associated with fibroids, which is relevant information. However, choice D is incorrect as fibroids that are asymptomatic or not causing problems usually do not require treatment, unless they lead to complications or health risks.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky, dizzy, and sweaty. The nurse checks the client's blood glucose level and it is 55 mg/dL. What is the nurse's next action?
- A. Give the client a glucagon injection
- B. Encourage the client to eat a high-protein snack
- C. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
- D. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which should be treated with a fast-acting carbohydrate to quickly raise the blood sugar. Administering 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets or juice, is the appropriate initial intervention for hypoglycemia. Giving a glucagon injection is reserved for severe cases or when the client is unconscious. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for treating acute hypoglycemia, as it is a slower-acting form of glucose. Rechecking the blood glucose level is important but should occur after providing immediate treatment to raise the blood sugar level.
4. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and peripheral edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Elevate the legs to reduce swelling.
- B. Restrict fluids to reduce fluid overload.
- C. Administer furosemide to reduce fluid overload.
- D. Monitor the client's intake and output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering a diuretic like furosemide is the priority intervention for a client with cirrhosis, ascites, and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps reduce fluid overload by promoting diuresis. Elevating the legs may provide some symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Restricting fluids is not appropriate initially as the client needs proper hydration while managing fluid balance. Monitoring intake and output is important but not the first action to address the immediate fluid overload in this client.
5. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of corticosteroids.
- B. Place the client in a supine position.
- C. Encourage oral fluid intake.
- D. Review the client's recent medication history.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.
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