HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. After checking the fingerstick glucose at 1630, what action should be implemented?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer 8 units of insulin aspart SubQ.
- C. Give an IV bolus of Dextrose 50% 50 ml.
- D. Perform quality control on the glucometer.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering insulin aspart (rapid-acting insulin) is the appropriate action to manage the elevated glucose level of 1630. Choice A, notifying the healthcare provider, is not the immediate action needed for this glucose level. Choice C, giving an IV bolus of Dextrose 50%, would exacerbate hyperglycemia instead of treating it. Choice D, performing quality control on the glucometer, is not relevant to the management of the patient's glucose level at this time.
2. A client with chronic heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure receiving furosemide, crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, requiring immediate intervention. This finding suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing oxygen exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Monitoring and managing pulmonary congestion promptly are crucial to prevent worsening heart failure and respiratory compromise. The other options, while important to assess in a client with heart failure, do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like crackles in the lungs do. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute may be within the normal range for some individuals, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is relatively stable, and peripheral edema is a common manifestation of heart failure that should be monitored but does not require immediate intervention compared to pulmonary congestion.
3. When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion, which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- D. Echocardiogram
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with new-onset confusion, an ECG is crucial to assess for cardiac ischemia, which could be a potential cause of the confusion. A chest X-ray (Choice B) is not typically the first-line diagnostic test for evaluating confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are more useful in assessing oxygenation and acid-base balance rather than the cause of confusion in this scenario. While an echocardiogram (Choice D) provides valuable information about cardiac structure and function, it is usually not the initial diagnostic test needed in the evaluation of acute confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation.
4. A male client with cancer who has lost 10 pounds during the last months tells the nurse that beef, chicken, and eggs, which used to be his favorite foods, now taste 'bitter'. He complains that he simply has no appetite. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Suggest the use of alternative sources of protein such as dairy products and nuts.
- B. Encourage the client to eat smaller, more frequent meals.
- C. Offer nutritional supplements between meals.
- D. Discuss the possibility of appetite stimulants with the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Offering alternative protein sources like dairy products and nuts can help maintain nutrition when the client finds certain foods unpalatable, as in this case where beef, chicken, and eggs taste 'bitter'. Encouraging smaller, more frequent meals may not address the issue of unpalatable foods. Offering nutritional supplements between meals may not specifically address the problem of protein intake. Discussing appetite stimulants should be considered after exploring less invasive options first.
5. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Crackles in the lungs
- B. Shortness of breath
- C. Elevated liver enzymes
- D. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are concerning in a client with chronic heart failure as they may indicate liver congestion or worsening heart failure, requiring immediate intervention. While crackles in the lungs and shortness of breath are common in heart failure, elevated liver enzymes specifically point towards possible liver involvement due to heart failure. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute can be expected in a client with heart failure due to compensatory mechanisms, but elevated liver enzymes signal a more severe condition.
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