a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing t
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HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion, which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with new-onset confusion, an ECG is crucial to assess for cardiac ischemia, which could be a potential cause of the confusion. A chest X-ray (Choice B) is not typically the first-line diagnostic test for evaluating confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are more useful in assessing oxygenation and acid-base balance rather than the cause of confusion in this scenario. While an echocardiogram (Choice D) provides valuable information about cardiac structure and function, it is usually not the initial diagnostic test needed in the evaluation of acute confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation who is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps determine if the client's blood is clotting appropriately. While prothrombin time (PT) is related to warfarin therapy, the INR is a more precise measure. Hemoglobin level and serum sodium level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

3. A client with hyperthyroidism is admitted to the postoperative unit after subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the client's serum laboratory values requires intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A calcium level of 5.0 mg/dL is critically low and could indicate hypoparathyroidism, a possible complication after thyroidectomy. Low calcium levels can lead to tetany, seizures, and cardiac dysrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D fall within the normal range and do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

4. When organizing home visits for the day, which older client should the home health nurse plan to visit first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Dark, tarry stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Visiting this client first is crucial for prompt assessment and intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent attention compared to the potential emergency indicated by dark, tarry stools.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema is the assessment finding that requires immediate intervention in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Subcutaneous emphysema can indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak, which can compromise respiratory function and lead to serious complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% may be concerning but does not require immediate intervention as it is still within an acceptable range. Crepitus around the insertion site is common after chest tube placement and may not always indicate a problem. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits and does not require immediate intervention in this context.

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