Nursing Elites

1. When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion, which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with new-onset confusion, an ECG is crucial to assess for cardiac ischemia, which could be a potential cause of the confusion. A chest X-ray (Choice B) is not typically the first-line diagnostic test for evaluating confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are more useful in assessing oxygenation and acid-base balance rather than the cause of confusion in this scenario. While an echocardiogram (Choice D) provides valuable information about cardiac structure and function, it is usually not the initial diagnostic test needed in the evaluation of acute confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation.

2. A client who is at 36 weeks gestation is admitted with severe preeclampsia. After a 6-gram loading dose of magnesium sulfate is administered, an intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate at a rate of 2 grams/hour is initiated. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Urine output of 20 ml/hour
• B. Blood pressure of 138/88
• C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
• D. Temperature of 99.8°F

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine output of less than 30 ml/hour indicates that the kidneys are being affected by the high level of magnesium sulfate. This decreased urine output can lead to magnesium toxicity and impaired kidney function. Blood pressure of 138/88 is within normal limits for pregnancy and does not indicate an immediate concern related to magnesium sulfate. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min is normal, and a temperature of 99.8°F is slightly elevated but not a priority in the context of severe preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate administration.

3. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction
• B. Administer a laxative to stimulate bowel movement
• C. Increase fluid intake to soften stool
• D. Perform a digital rectal examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. In this scenario, the client's presentation of frequent small amounts of liquid stool after a period of no bowel movement suggests a possible impaction. By performing a digital examination, the nurse can assess for the presence of a blockage that may be causing the symptoms. Administering a laxative (Choice B) without assessing for impaction can worsen the situation. Increasing fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for bowel health but may not address the immediate issue of a potential impaction. Performing a digital rectal examination (Choice D) is similar to Choice A but is more focused on assessing the rectum itself rather than checking for an impaction.

4. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, what finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Stridor
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Pruritus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously, if the client develops stridor, it is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention to maintain a patent airway. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are important to assess, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and would not require the same level of urgent intervention as stridor.

5. While taking vital signs, a critically ill male client grabs the nurse's hand and asks the nurse not to leave. What action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Pull up a chair and sit beside the client's bed.
• B. Reassure the client that you will return shortly.
• C. Ask another nurse to stay with the client.
• D. Continue taking vital signs and then leave the room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to pull up a chair and sit beside the client's bed. By doing so, the nurse can provide emotional support and comfort to the critically ill patient who is feeling vulnerable. Sitting with the client also shows empathy and a willingness to listen to the client's needs. Reassuring the client that the nurse will return shortly (Choice B) may not address the immediate need for emotional support. Asking another nurse to stay with the client (Choice C) may not establish the same level of connection and comfort as sitting with the client personally. Continuing to take vital signs and then leaving the room (Choice D) disregards the client's emotional needs in that moment.

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