Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Jugular venous distention
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, crackles in the lungs are the most concerning finding as they indicate pulmonary congestion, which requires immediate intervention to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and respiratory distress. Jugular venous distention, shortness of breath, and peripheral edema are also common in heart failure but are not as critical as crackles in the lungs because they may indicate fluid overload or right-sided heart failure, which are important to address but not as urgently as managing pulmonary congestion.

2. During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first?

• A. Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds
• B. Oxygen saturation rate of 88%
• C. Eight premature ventricular beats every minute
• D. Disconnected monitor signal for the last 6 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds. Respiratory apnea indicates a cessation of breathing, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. Priority should be given to assessing and managing airway, breathing, and circulation. Option B, oxygen saturation rate of 88%, can indicate hypoxemia, but addressing the lack of breathing takes precedence. Option C, eight premature ventricular beats every minute, and option D, a disconnected monitor signal, are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to respiratory apnea.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
• C. Check the client's blood glucose level
• D. Prepare the client for immediate dialysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering IV fluids as prescribed should be the first intervention for a client with diabetes mellitus admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and unresponsive. This intervention is crucial in managing hyperglycemia by helping to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering 50% dextrose IV push (Choice A) would worsen hyperglycemia in this scenario. Checking the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is important but not the priority when dealing with an unresponsive client with severe hyperglycemia. Immediate dialysis preparation (Choice D) is not indicated as the first intervention for hyperglycemia.

4. During a clinic visit, a client with a kidney transplant asks, 'What will happen if chronic rejection develops?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Dialysis would need to be resumed if chronic rejection becomes a reality.
• B. Immunosuppressive therapy would be intensified.
• C. A second transplant would be scheduled immediately.
• D. We would monitor your kidney function closely.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide is that dialysis would need to be resumed if chronic rejection becomes a reality. Chronic rejection of a transplanted kidney can lead to kidney failure, necessitating the need for dialysis until another transplant is possible. Choice B is incorrect because although immunosuppressive therapy may be adjusted, the immediate concern is the potential need for dialysis. Choice C is incorrect because scheduling a second transplant immediately is not typically the first step following chronic rejection. Choice D is also incorrect as close monitoring of kidney function is essential but does not address the immediate need for dialysis if chronic rejection occurs.

5. An adolescent's mother calls the clinic because the teen is having recurrent vomiting and has been combative in the last 2 days. The mother states that the teen takes vitamins, calcium, and magnesium supplements along with aspirin. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Advise the mother to withhold all medications by mouth.
• B. Instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room.
• C. Recommend that the teen withhold food and fluids for 2 hours.
• D. Suggest that the adolescent breathe slowly and deeply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the highest priority nursing intervention is to instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room. The symptoms of recurrent vomiting, combative behavior, and the medications (vitamins, calcium, magnesium supplements, and aspirin) taken by the teen suggest a possible overdose or serious adverse reaction. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation is crucial to assess and manage any potential toxicity or adverse effects. Advising to withhold all medications by mouth (Choice A) may delay necessary treatment. Recommending withholding food and fluids for 2 hours (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Suggesting slow and deep breathing (Choice D) is not appropriate in this urgent situation requiring immediate medical attention.

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