Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use of accessory muscles.' In a client with a history of COPD, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure, necessitating immediate intervention. This finding is concerning as it suggests the client is struggling to breathe adequately. Oxygen saturation of 90% (choice A) is low but may be expected in COPD patients; it requires monitoring and intervention but is not as immediately concerning as the use of accessory muscles. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute (choice B) is within a normal range and, although slightly elevated, may be a typical response to pneumonia. Inspiratory crackles (choice D) can be a common finding in pneumonia and are not as indicative of impending respiratory failure as the use of accessory muscles.

2. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Crackles in the lungs
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Elevated liver enzymes
• D. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are concerning in a client with chronic heart failure as they may indicate liver congestion or worsening heart failure, requiring immediate intervention. While crackles in the lungs and shortness of breath are common in heart failure, elevated liver enzymes specifically point towards possible liver involvement due to heart failure. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute can be expected in a client with heart failure due to compensatory mechanisms, but elevated liver enzymes signal a more severe condition.

3. A newly graduated female staff nurse requests reassignment to another client because a male client is asking her for a date and making suggestive comments. Which response is best for the nurse manager to provide?

• A. I have to call the supervisor to get someone else to transfer to this unit to care for him.
• B. I know you are a good nurse and can handle this client in a professional manner.
• C. I'll talk to the client about his behavior and insist that he stop it immediately.
• D. I'll change your assignment, but let's talk about how a nurse should respond to this kind of client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse manager to provide in this situation is option D, which involves changing the assignment to address the nurse's immediate concern. It also offers an opportunity to have a conversation with the nurse about how to professionally handle such situations in the future. Option A is not the best response as it does not address the underlying issue and simply shifts the problem to another staff member. Option B, while supportive, does not actively address the client's inappropriate behavior. Option C is not ideal as the nurse manager should handle discussions about inappropriate behavior with clients themselves rather than delegating it to the staff nurse.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While monitoring electrolyte levels like serum potassium and sodium is important in overall client care, they are not specific to monitoring the effects of warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is a component of INR and helps in monitoring warfarin therapy, but INR gives a standardized result that is independent of the laboratory method used, making it the preferred choice for monitoring warfarin therapy.

5. While caring for a toddler receiving oxygen (02) via face mask, the nurse observes that the child's lips and nares are dry and cracked. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Ask the mother what she usually uses on the child's lips and nose.
• B. Apply a petroleum jelly (Vaseline) to the child's nose and lips.
• C. Use a topical lidocaine (Zylocaine viscous) analgesic for cracked lips.
• D. Use a water-soluble lubricant on affected oral and nasal mucosa.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A water-soluble lubricant is safe to use in conjunction with oxygen therapy, unlike petroleum jelly which is flammable.

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