HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum glucose
- C. Serum triglycerides
- D. Serum calcium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with acute pancreatitis receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), the nurse should monitor serum triglycerides closely. Acute pancreatitis can lead to fat malabsorption, making the client susceptible to hypertriglyceridemia. Monitoring serum triglycerides is crucial to prevent complications such as hyperlipidemia. While monitoring serum potassium, glucose, and calcium levels is also essential in various conditions, in this scenario, the primary concern is the risk of developing hypertriglyceridemia due to fat malabsorption.
2. What suggestion should the nurse provide to prevent diaper rash in a 4-month-old infant as requested by the mother?
- A. Generously powder the baby's diaper area with talcum powder at each diaper change to promote dryness.
- B. Wash the diaper area every 2 hours with soap and water to help prevent skin breakdown.
- C. Use a barrier cream, such as zinc oxide, which does not have to be completely removed with each diaper change.
- D. Place a cloth diaper inside the disposable diaper for overnight periods when increased wearing time is likely.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Using a barrier cream like zinc oxide forms a protective layer on the skin, creating a barrier against irritants and moisture, thus helping to prevent diaper rash. Unlike other options, barrier creams do not need to be completely removed at each diaper change, allowing the skin to remain protected between changes.
3. A client with a head injury reports severe nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer anti-nausea medication as prescribed.
- B. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed and provide an emesis basin.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Severe nausea in a client with a head injury may be a sign of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure timely intervention, as increased pressure can lead to further complications such as brain herniation. Administering anti-nausea medication or preparing for a CT scan may delay necessary treatment for the underlying cause of the nausea, which could be related to the head injury. Elevating the head of the bed and providing an emesis basin may help manage symptoms but should not be the priority over addressing the potential increase in intracranial pressure.
4. A client with a family history of polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Nocturia
- B. Flank pain
- C. Increased abdominal girth
- D. B & C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients with PKD commonly present with flank pain and increased abdominal girth due to abdominal distention caused by cysts. Bloody urine is also a common symptom due to tissue damage from PKD. Nocturia and dysuria are not typical manifestations of PKD. Constipation is not directly associated with PKD. Therefore, the correct choices are flank pain and increased abdominal girth, making option D the correct answer.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen, the use of accessory muscles is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention. This observation indicates increased work of breathing, suggesting respiratory distress. Addressing this issue promptly is crucial to prevent further respiratory compromise. Choice A, oxygen saturation of 90%, is slightly below the normal range but may not require immediate intervention unless it continues to decrease. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, is within normal limits for an adult and does not indicate an urgent issue. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, may be present in COPD due to secretions or inflammation but do not necessitate immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning signs.