HESI RN
Community Health HESI
1. A public health nurse is planning an educational campaign to reduce the incidence of hypertension in the community. Which group should be the primary target of this campaign?
- A. adolescents
- B. young adults
- C. middle-aged adults
- D. older adults
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, middle-aged adults. Middle-aged adults are at a higher risk for developing hypertension due to lifestyle factors and aging. Targeting this group for preventive measures such as dietary changes, exercise, and stress management can have a significant impact on reducing the incidence of hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are less appropriate targets as adolescents generally have lower rates of hypertension, young adults are less likely to be affected by hypertension at this stage, and older adults may already have established hypertension or comorbidities that could make prevention more challenging.
2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning effectively?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
- C. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber.
- D. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation indicating effective functioning of the chest tube. This bubbling signifies that the suction system is working correctly and maintaining the desired negative pressure in the pleural space. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber suggests an air leak, which is not a normal finding. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber may indicate a blockage or lack of communication between the pleural space and the water-seal, which is not ideal. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube is a normal finding, but it does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the chest tube function.
3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/120 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Metoprolol (Lopressor).
- B. Furosemide (Lasix).
- C. Lisinopril (Zestril).
- D. Nitroprusside (Nipride).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Nitroprusside (Nipride). In this scenario of severe hypertension (200/120 mm Hg), a hypertensive emergency is present, requiring rapid reduction of blood pressure. Nitroprusside is a vasodilator that acts quickly to lower blood pressure in such emergencies. Options A, B, and C are incorrect: A) Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure but is not indicated for hypertensive emergencies requiring rapid reduction. B) Furosemide is a diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not rapidly lower blood pressure. C) Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used for long-term management of hypertension, not for immediate reduction in hypertensive emergencies.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with Addison's disease. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Hyperpigmentation of the skin.
- B. Low blood pressure.
- C. Nausea and vomiting.
- D. Hypoglycemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Low blood pressure in a client with Addison's disease requires immediate intervention as it can indicate an Addisonian crisis, a life-threatening condition that necessitates prompt treatment. Hyperpigmentation of the skin is a characteristic finding in Addison's disease but does not require immediate intervention. Nausea and vomiting can be managed symptomatically in Addison's disease. While hypoglycemia needs attention, it is not the most critical finding requiring immediate intervention in this context.
5. During which home visit performed by a registered nurse or a practical nurse can the home healthcare agency expect Medicare reimbursement for documenting a skilled care service provided?
- A. 13-18 years of age
- B. 11-12 years of age
- C. 18-24 months of age
- D. 4-6 years of age
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. According to current CDC guidelines, a child receiving the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine at 12 months of age should plan to receive the MMR booster between 4-6 years of age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the CDC's recommended age range for the MMR vaccine booster. It is crucial for healthcare providers to stay updated with current guidelines to ensure the timely administration of vaccines for optimal protection.
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