Nursing Elites

1. A public health nurse is planning an educational campaign to reduce the incidence of hypertension in the community. Which group should be the primary target of this campaign?

• A. adolescents
• B. young adults
• C. middle-aged adults
• D. older adults

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, middle-aged adults. Middle-aged adults are at a higher risk for developing hypertension due to lifestyle factors and aging. Targeting this group for preventive measures such as dietary changes, exercise, and stress management can have a significant impact on reducing the incidence of hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are less appropriate targets as adolescents generally have lower rates of hypertension, young adults are less likely to be affected by hypertension at this stage, and older adults may already have established hypertension or comorbidities that could make prevention more challenging.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.5 g/dL.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL.
• D. Serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, the serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL. An elevated serum ammonia level indicates hepatic dysfunction and can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Options A, B, and C are within normal ranges or slightly abnormal values for clients with cirrhosis and do not pose an immediate threat. Serum albumin levels may indicate malnutrition, prothrombin time may reflect liver synthetic function, and hemoglobin levels can be affected by various factors but do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

3. When documenting assessment data, which statement should the nurse record in the narrative nursing notes?

• A. Client appears anxious.
• B. Client's skin is warm and dry.
• C. S1 murmur auscultated in supine position.
• D. Client is resting quietly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When documenting assessment data in the narrative nursing notes, it is essential to include objective findings that are specific, clear, and descriptive. 'S1 murmur auscultated in supine position' provides a precise and objective assessment finding that can aid in accurately documenting the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are more subjective statements that lack the specificity and clarity required for detailed documentation. 'Client appears anxious' and 'Client is resting quietly' are subjective observations, while 'Client's skin is warm and dry' is an objective finding but may not be as significant or relevant for comprehensive documentation as the auscultated murmur.

4. The nurse is developing a series of childbirth preparation classes for primigravida women and their significant others. What is the priority expected outcome for these classes?

• A. Participants can identify at least three coping strategies to use during labor.
• B. Participants can list signs of labor and when to come to the hospital.
• C. Participants can describe three pain relief measures to use during labor.
• D. Participants can perform three relaxation techniques to use during labor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority expected outcome for childbirth preparation classes is for participants to be able to identify coping strategies to use during labor. This is crucial as coping strategies can help women manage pain, stress, and anxiety during childbirth. Choice B is important but does not focus on coping strategies needed during labor. Choice C is relevant but focuses solely on pain relief measures which are a part of coping strategies. Choice D is also relevant but does not encompass all aspects of coping with labor effectively.

5. A female client is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Facial weakness and difficulty speaking.
• B. Decreased deep tendon reflexes in the legs.
• C. Inability to move the eyes.
• D. Respiratory distress and cyanosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, decreased deep tendon reflexes are a critical finding that may indicate impending respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the peripheral nervous system affecting the muscles, including those involved in breathing. Reporting decreased deep tendon reflexes promptly is essential to prevent respiratory compromise. Facial weakness, difficulty speaking, and inability to move the eyes are common manifestations of Guillain-Barre syndrome but are not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress and impending respiratory failure.

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