Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is developing a program to educate parents on childhood safety. Which topic should be prioritized?

• A. the benefits of car seats
• B. how to childproof the home
• C. the importance of helmet use
• D. ways to prevent drowning

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prioritizing the topic of how to childproof the home is crucial as it provides a holistic approach to safeguarding children from various injuries within the home environment. Childproofing the home addresses a wide range of hazards such as falls, burns, poisoning, and choking incidents. While topics like the benefits of car seats, the importance of helmet use, and ways to prevent drowning are important, childproofing the home covers a broader spectrum of safety measures that can significantly reduce the risk of injuries for children.

2. After coronary artery bypass graft surgery, a male client is admitted to the coronary care unit. Which nursing diagnosis is of the highest priority?

• A. Ineffective breathing pattern.
• B. Impaired gas exchange.
• C. Acute pain.
• D. Risk for infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Impaired gas exchange is the highest priority nursing diagnosis because it directly impacts the client's oxygenation. Following coronary artery bypass graft surgery, ensuring adequate oxygen exchange is crucial for the client's recovery. Ineffective breathing pattern, although important, may not be as critical as impaired gas exchange in the immediate postoperative period. Acute pain, while significant, can be managed effectively with appropriate interventions and is not as emergent as addressing impaired gas exchange. Risk for infection is also a valid concern post-surgery, but ensuring optimal gas exchange takes precedence to prevent complications associated with inadequate oxygenation.

3. The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day.
• B. Remove the brace while sleeping.
• C. Wear the brace directly against the skin.
• D. Remove the brace while eating.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Milwaukee brace should be worn over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day to reduce friction and chafing of the skin. This ensures that the brace is not directly against the skin, which can cause discomfort and skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because the brace should typically be worn continuously, even while sleeping, unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as wearing the brace directly against the skin can lead to skin issues. Choice D is incorrect since the brace should not be removed while eating to maintain the prescribed wear time.

4. Which client has the highest risk for developing community-acquired pneumonia?

• A. a 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children
• B. a 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing
• C. a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes
• D. a 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This client has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to multiple factors such as homelessness, substance abuse, and smoking. Homelessness can lead to poor living conditions and limited access to healthcare, increasing susceptibility to infections. Alcoholism and smoking weaken the immune system, making individuals more vulnerable to respiratory infections like pneumonia. Choices A, B, and D do not present the same level of risk factors for pneumonia compared to choice C.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
• D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

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