Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this client's clinical picture?

• A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L and total calcium of 9 mg/dL.
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3.
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL.
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and phosphorus of 2 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In renal failure and osteodystrophy, there is an alteration in serum electrolyte balance. The correct answer is serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL. Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium) and hypocalcemia (low total calcium levels). Hyperphosphatemia is also commonly seen in renal failure. Choice A is incorrect as it describes normal levels of serum potassium and total calcium. Choice B is unrelated to the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical electrolyte imbalances seen in renal failure and osteodystrophy.

2. The nurse is assessing an older adult client and determines that the client's left upper eyelid droops, covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Which description should the nurse use to document this finding?

• A. Ptosis on the left eyelid.
• B. Nystagmus.
• C. Astigmatism.
• D. Exophthalmos.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Ptosis on the left eyelid.' Ptosis is the term used to describe an eyelid droop that covers a large portion of the iris, which may be caused by issues with the oculomotor nerve or eyelid muscles. Choice B, 'Nystagmus,' refers to involuntary eye movements and is not related to eyelid drooping. Choice C, 'Astigmatism,' is a refractive error affecting vision due to an irregularly shaped cornea or lens, not an eyelid condition. Choice D, 'Exophthalmos,' is a protrusion of the eyeball associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism, not eyelid drooping.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

4. A female client reports to the nurse that her sleep was interrupted by 'thoughts of anger towards my husband.' What type of thoughts is the client having?

• A. Obsessive.
• B. Phobic.
• C. Delusional.
• D. Paranoid.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obsessive. Obsessive thoughts are recurring, unwanted, and intrusive thoughts that cause distress or anxiety. In this scenario, the client is experiencing repetitive thoughts of anger towards her husband, indicating an inability to control these thoughts. Choice B, Phobic, is incorrect as phobic thoughts are related to irrational fears. Choice C, Delusional, is incorrect as delusional thoughts involve fixed false beliefs. Choice D, Paranoid, is incorrect as paranoid thoughts involve irrational suspicions and mistrust.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
• B. I will report any signs of infection to my healthcare provider.
• C. I will avoid using salt substitutes.
• D. I will increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in clients taking ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and can be exacerbated by consuming potassium-rich foods. Monitoring blood pressure regularly (A) is important when taking antihypertensive medications. Reporting signs of infection (B) is crucial as ACE inhibitors can lower the immune response. Avoiding salt substitutes (C) is necessary because they may contain potassium chloride, leading to increased potassium levels, which can be harmful in combination with ACE inhibitors.

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