Nursing Elites

1. A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?

• A. Supine with the foot of the bed raised.
• B. On the left side with legs elevated.
• C. On the right side with legs elevated.
• D. Prone with head elevated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which finding supports this diagnosis?

• A. Positive Homan's sign.
• B. Unilateral leg swelling.
• C. Bilateral calf pain.
• D. Redness and warmth in the affected leg.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Redness and warmth in the affected leg. These are classic signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and support the diagnosis. Choice A, Positive Homan's sign, is an outdated and unreliable test for DVT, so it is not the best choice. Choice B, Unilateral leg swelling, can be seen in DVT but is less specific compared to redness and warmth. Choice C, Bilateral calf pain, is not a typical finding in DVT, as the pain in DVT is usually unilateral.

3. A male client who had abdominal surgery has a nasogastric tube for suction, oxygen via nasal cannula, and complains of dry mouth. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Apply a petroleum-based lubricant to the lips.
• B. Give sips of water.
• C. Provide ice chips.
• D. Apply a water-soluble lubricant to the lips, oral mucosa, and nares.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to apply a water-soluble lubricant to the lips, oral mucosa, and nares. This helps in keeping the mucous membranes moist, which is essential for a client with a dry mouth due to the nasogastric tube and oxygen therapy. Choice A, applying a petroleum-based lubricant to the lips, is not suitable as it may not be safe for internal use. Choice B, giving sips of water, is contraindicated as the client has a nasogastric tube in place for suction. Choice C, providing ice chips, is also not recommended as the client needs proper lubrication to address dryness, not cold stimulation.

4. During a follow-up home visit, the nurse observes that a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is using accessory muscles to breathe and has a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator
• B. Increase the oxygen flow rate
• C. Instruct the client to perform pursed-lip breathing
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should first instruct the client to perform pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps improve oxygenation and decrease the work of breathing in clients with COPD. Administering a bronchodilator or increasing the oxygen flow rate may be necessary interventions but addressing the breathing technique through pursed-lip breathing is the initial action to optimize oxygenation. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately is not the first action indicated in this scenario; the nurse should intervene promptly to assist the client in improving breathing before escalating the situation.

5. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

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