Nursing Elites

1. A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?

• A. Supine with the foot of the bed raised.
• B. On the left side with legs elevated.
• C. On the right side with legs elevated.
• D. Prone with head elevated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.

2. During a 2-week postoperative follow-up home visit, a female client who had gastric bypass surgery exhibits abdominal tenderness, shoulder pain, and describes feelings of malaise. Her vital signs are: T 101.8, BP 100/50, HR 104, and RR 18. Which action should the RN take?

• A. have the client transported via ambulance to the hospital
• B. recheck the client's vital signs in 30 minutes
• C. instruct the client to drive to the hospital for admission
• D. assess the client's current symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is presenting with signs of a potential postoperative complication, such as fever, low blood pressure, and tachycardia, which could indicate sepsis or another serious issue. These symptoms require immediate hospital evaluation and management. Option B of rechecking vital signs in 30 minutes could delay crucial intervention in a potentially life-threatening situation. Option C is unsafe as the client should not drive herself due to her condition. Option D is vague and does not address the urgency of the situation.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected stroke. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg.
• B. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL.
• C. Difficulty speaking.
• D. Temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Difficulty speaking is a classic symptom of a stroke, indicating a potential blockage of blood flow to the brain. Immediate intervention is crucial to minimize brain damage. While an elevated blood pressure (Choice A) may need management, it is not the most urgent concern in this scenario. A blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL (Choice B) is slightly elevated but does not require immediate intervention for a suspected stroke. A temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C) (Choice D) falls within the normal range and is not a critical finding in this context.

4. The healthcare provider is developing a community outreach program to address childhood obesity. Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement first?

• A. conduct a survey to assess dietary habits and physical activity levels
• B. develop educational materials on healthy eating and exercise
• C. partner with local schools to promote physical activity programs
• D. organize community events that encourage healthy lifestyle choices

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a survey to assess dietary habits and physical activity levels should be the initial step in developing a community outreach program to address childhood obesity. By gathering data through a survey, the healthcare provider can identify specific needs, preferences, and challenges within the community. This information is crucial for designing tailored interventions that are more likely to be effective. Developing educational materials (Choice B) can come after understanding the community's needs through the survey. Partnering with local schools (Choice C) and organizing community events (Choice D) are important strategies but should be planned based on the data obtained from the survey to ensure relevance and impact.

5. A community health nurse is developing a program to reduce the incidence of teen pregnancy. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. Distribute free condoms at local high schools
• B. Offer comprehensive sex education classes
• C. Promote abstinence-only education
• D. Provide access to reproductive health services

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Comprehensive sex education has been shown to be more effective in reducing teen pregnancy rates compared to abstinence-only education. Providing comprehensive sex education equips teens with knowledge about safe sex practices, contraception methods, and healthy relationships, which empowers them to make informed decisions. Distributing free condoms and providing access to reproductive health services are important components, but without proper education, teens may not understand how to use these resources effectively. Promoting abstinence-only education limits information and may not address the reality of teen sexual behavior, potentially leading to higher pregnancy rates.

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