Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

2. A client with hyperthyroidism is receiving radioactive iodine therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should avoid close contact with pregnant women and children for a few days.
• B. I may experience dry mouth and taste changes for a few days.
• C. I may experience some neck swelling.
• D. I should expect to have no side effects.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D.' The client stating 'I should expect to have no side effects' indicates a need for further teaching as it is incorrect. With radioactive iodine therapy, side effects like dry mouth, taste changes, and neck swelling are common. Choices A and B are correct statements; the client should avoid close contact with pregnant women and children due to radiation exposure, and dry mouth and taste changes are common side effects. Choice C is also correct, making D the correct answer.

3. A community health nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of a recent smoking cessation program. Which outcome indicates success?

• A. increased attendance at support group meetings
• B. reduced number of cigarettes smoked per day
• C. higher sales of nicotine replacement products
• D. lower relapse rate among participants

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: lower relapse rate among participants. A lower relapse rate indicates that participants are successfully quitting smoking and maintaining their cessation, which is the ultimate goal of a smoking cessation program. Increased attendance at support group meetings (choice A) may demonstrate engagement but does not necessarily indicate successful smoking cessation. Similarly, higher sales of nicotine replacement products (choice C) may reflect increased product usage but not necessarily successful smoking cessation. While reducing the number of cigarettes smoked per day (choice B) is a positive change, it does not guarantee successful smoking cessation or long-term abstinence.

4. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed aspirin therapy. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take aspirin with food.
• B. Take aspirin at the same time every day.
• C. Avoid taking aspirin with alcohol.
• D. Discontinue aspirin if you experience ringing in your ears.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching plan is to avoid taking aspirin with alcohol. Combining aspirin with alcohol can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and other complications. Taking aspirin with food helps reduce stomach upset, but it is not the most crucial instruction in this scenario. While taking aspirin at the same time every day can help with consistency, it is not as critical as avoiding alcohol. Discontinuing aspirin if experiencing ringing in the ears is important to address potential side effects, but it is not directly related to preventing complications when combining with alcohol.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with liver cirrhosis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Ascites.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Spider angiomas.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Spider angiomas are abnormal clusters of blood vessels near the skin surface and can be indicative of an underlying liver condition. In the context of liver cirrhosis, spider angiomas can suggest portal hypertension and liver dysfunction, which requires immediate intervention. Jaundice (choice A) is a common manifestation of liver cirrhosis but not typically an immediate intervention priority unless severe. Ascites (choice B) and peripheral edema (choice C) are also common in liver cirrhosis but do not require immediate intervention unless they are causing respiratory compromise or other urgent issues.

Similar Questions