HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam
1. After a urography, a client is instructed by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s discharge teaching?
- A. Avoid direct contact with your urine for 24 hours until the dye clears.
- B. You may experience dribbling of urine for several weeks post-procedure.
- C. Drink at least 3 liters of fluids today to assist in dye elimination.
- D. Your skin may turn slightly yellow from the dye used in this procedure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: It is important for the client to increase fluid intake to aid in the rapid elimination of the potentially nephrotoxic dye used in urography. This instruction will help prevent any adverse effects related to the dye. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the dye used in urography is not radioactive, so there is no need to avoid direct contact with urine, urine dribbling is not a common post-procedure occurrence, and the dye should not cause the client's skin to change color.
2. The nurse is caring for a patient who develops marked edema and a low urine output as a result of heart failure. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
- A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
- B. Furosemide (Lasix)
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
- D. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In heart failure with marked edema and low urine output, the nurse can expect the provider to order Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts quickly to remove excess fluid from the body, making it an appropriate choice for this patient's condition. Digoxin is used to improve heart function but does not directly address fluid overload. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that is not as potent as Furosemide in managing acute fluid retention. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is typically used in heart failure for its aldosterone-blocking effects and not for immediate fluid removal.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer intravenous gentamicin to an infant through an intermittent needle. The nurse notes that the infant has not had a wet diaper for several hours. The nurse will perform which action?
- A. Administer the medication and give the infant extra oral fluids.
- B. Contact the provider to request adding intravenous fluids when giving the medication.
- C. Give the medication and obtain a serum peak drug level 45 minutes after the dose.
- D. Hold the dose and contact the provider to request a serum trough drug level.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the infant not having a wet diaper for several hours indicates a potential decrease in urine output, which can be a sign of nephrotoxicity related to gentamicin. The correct action for the nurse is to hold the dose and contact the provider to request a serum trough drug level. This is important to monitor the drug levels and ensure that they are not reaching toxic levels. Administering the medication without addressing the decreased urine output could potentially lead to further nephrotoxicity. Contacting the provider to add intravenous fluids or obtaining a serum peak drug level are not the most appropriate actions in this situation as the priority is to assess for potential nephrotoxicity and ensure patient safety.
4. The nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic to a patient who has been receiving the antibiotic for 2 days after a culture was obtained. The nurse notes increased erythema and swelling, and the patient has a persistent high fever of 39°C. What is the nurse’s next action?
- A. Administer the antibiotic as ordered.
- B. Contact the provider to request another culture.
- C. Discuss the need to add a second antibiotic with the provider.
- D. Review the sensitivity results from the patient’s culture.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is observing signs of a possible lack of response to the current antibiotic therapy, such as increased erythema, swelling, and persistent high fever. The next appropriate action for the nurse is to review the sensitivity results from the patient’s culture. This step is crucial to determine if the current antibiotic is effective against the causative organism. If the sensitivity results indicate resistance to the current antibiotic, the antibiotic should be discontinued, and the provider should be notified for a change in therapy. Contacting the provider to request another culture is not the immediate priority, as the existing culture results need to be reviewed first. Adding a second antibiotic should only be considered after confirming the sensitivity results, as unnecessary antibiotic use can lead to antimicrobial resistance.
5. What is a key intervention for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
- A. Administering insulin
- B. Administering IV fluids
- C. Administering oral glucose
- D. Administering oral fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering insulin is a crucial intervention for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) because it helps in managing hyperglycemia and ketosis by promoting the uptake of glucose by cells and inhibiting the production of ketones. IV fluids are necessary to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in DKA but are not the primary treatment for the condition. Administering oral glucose would exacerbate hyperglycemia in a patient with DKA, while administering oral fluids alone would not effectively address the underlying metabolic disturbances seen in DKA.
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