HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. A client with nephrotic syndrome is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Proteinuria
- B. Hypoalbuminemia
- C. Lipiduria
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by glomerular damage, leading to proteinuria (excessive protein in the urine), hypoalbuminemia (low levels of albumin in the blood), and lipiduria (lipids in the urine). These manifestations are key indicators of nephrotic syndrome. Edema, often severe, is also common due to decreased plasma oncotic pressure from hypoalbuminemia. The correct answer is 'All of the above' because all three manifestations are associated with nephrotic syndrome. Dehydration is not a typical finding in nephrotic syndrome as it is more commonly associated with fluid retention and edema. Dysuria is a symptom of cystitis, not nephrotic syndrome. CVA tenderness is more indicative of inflammatory changes in the kidney rather than nephrotic syndrome.
2. The adult client admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/64 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Take the client's temperature using another method.
- B. Raise the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees.
- C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
- D. Check the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Taking the client's temperature using another method is the most appropriate action in this situation. A tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C) is abnormally low and may not reflect the true core body temperature accurately. By using an alternative method, such as oral or rectal temperature measurement, the nurse can obtain a more reliable temperature reading. Raising the head of the bed (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) may be beneficial for respiratory function but does not address the temperature concern. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice D) is not the priority when the initial focus should be on accurate temperature assessment.
3. An 81-year-old male client has emphysema. He lives at home with his cat and manages self-care with no difficulty. When making a home visit, the nurse notices that his tongue is somewhat cracked, and his eyeballs are sunken into his head. What nursing intervention is indicated?
- A. Help the client determine ways to increase his fluid intake.
- B. Obtain an appointment for the client to see a pulmonologist.
- C. Schedule an appointment with a nutritionist to assess the client's diet.
- D. Encourage the client to slightly increase his use of oxygen at night and to always use humidified oxygen.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct nursing intervention in this scenario is to assist the client in finding ways to increase his fluid intake. Clients with COPD, including emphysema, should aim to consume at least three liters of fluids per day to help keep their mucus thin. As the disease progresses, these clients may decrease fluid intake due to various reasons. Suggesting creative methods, such as having disposable fruit juices readily available, can help the client meet this goal. Option B is incorrect as seeing an ear, nose, and throat specialist is not directly related to the client's symptoms. Option C is not the priority in this case, as the main concern is addressing the client's dehydration. Option D does not address the immediate need for managing the client's dehydration and is not the most appropriate intervention at this time.
4. Which is a characteristic that distinguishes sulfonamides from other drugs used to treat bacterial infections?
- A. Sulfonamides are bactericidal.
- B. Sulfonamides are synthetic compounds.
- C. Sulfonamides have antifungal and antiviral properties.
- D. Sulfonamides increase bacterial synthesis of folic acid.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The characteristic that distinguishes sulfonamides from other drugs used to treat bacterial infections is that sulfonamides are synthetic compounds, not derived from biologic substances. Choice A is incorrect because sulfonamides are bacteriostatic, not bactericidal. Choice C is incorrect because sulfonamides do not have antifungal and antiviral properties. Choice D is incorrect because sulfonamides act by inhibiting bacterial synthesis of folic acid, not increasing it.
5. A client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones is being taught by a nurse. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s dietary teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Limit your intake of food high in animal protein.
- B. Read food labels to help minimize your sodium intake.
- C. A and B
- D. Reduce your intake of milk and other dairy products.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones, it is essential to limit the intake of foods high in animal protein to prevent the formation of stones. Additionally, reducing sodium intake is crucial as high sodium levels can contribute to stone formation. Therefore, choices A and B are correct. Choice D, which suggests reducing intake of milk and other dairy products, is not specifically recommended for calcium phosphate stones. Clients with calcium phosphate stones should focus on limiting animal protein, sodium, and calcium intake. Choices A and B address these dietary modifications, making them the correct options for this client. Choices D, which is not directly related to calcium phosphate stones, is incorrect.
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