HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client is being taught about self-catheterization in the home setting. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Wash your hands before and after self-catheterization.
- B. Use lubricant on the tip of the catheter before insertion.
- C. A & B
- D. Self-catheterize at least twice a day or every 12 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In teaching a client about self-catheterization, it is essential to emphasize proper hand hygiene before and after the procedure to prevent infections. Using lubricant on the catheter helps with insertion and reduces discomfort. Therefore, statements A and B are correct and should be included in the client's teaching. Option D is incorrect because self-catheterization frequency should be individualized based on the client's needs, and a specific time frame like every 12 hours may not be suitable for everyone. Choosing a smaller lumen catheter is preferred over a larger one. Self-catheterization should not be limited to a specific time frame but should be based on the individual's needs and voiding patterns. Therefore, option C is the correct choice as it includes the two essential statements for teaching self-catheterization in the home setting.
2. During an assessment on a patient brought to the emergency department for treatment for dehydration, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 86/50 mm Hg, and a temperature of 39.5° C. The patient becomes dizzy when transferred from the wheelchair to a bed. The nurse observes cool, clammy skin. Which diagnosis does the nurse suspect?
- A. Fluid volume deficit (FVD)
- B. Fluid volume excess (FVE)
- C. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit
- D. Renal failure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should suspect Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD) in this patient. Signs of FVD include elevated temperature, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, orthostatic hypotension, and cool, clammy skin, which align with the patient's assessment findings. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) typically presents with bounding pulses, elevated blood pressure, dyspnea, and crackles. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit usually manifests as thirst. Renal failure commonly results in Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) rather than Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD).
3. Which of the following is a common sign of meningitis?
- A. Joint pain.
- B. Severe headache.
- C. Stiff neck.
- D. Coughing up blood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A stiff neck is a common sign of meningitis due to inflammation of the meninges. Meningitis typically presents with symptoms such as fever, severe headache, nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light, and a stiff neck. Joint pain (Choice A) is not a typical symptom of meningitis and is more commonly associated with other conditions. While severe headache (Choice B) can be a symptom of meningitis, it is not as specific as a stiff neck. Coughing up blood (Choice D) is not a typical sign of meningitis and may indicate other respiratory or cardiovascular issues.
4. A client is unsure of the decision to undergo peritoneal dialysis (PD) and wishes to discuss the advantages of this treatment with the nurse. Which statements by the nurse are accurate regarding PD? (Select all that apply.)
- A. You will not need vascular access to perform PD.
- B. There is less restriction of protein and fluids.
- C. You have flexible scheduling for the exchanges.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all the statements are accurate advantages of peritoneal dialysis (PD). Peritoneal dialysis does not require vascular access, offers less restriction on protein and fluids, and provides flexibility in scheduling for the exchanges. Choice A is correct because one of the advantages of PD is not needing vascular access, which is required in hemodialysis. Choice B is correct because PD allows for less dietary restriction compared to hemodialysis. Choice C is correct because PD allows for flexible scheduling of exchanges, providing more independence to the individual undergoing treatment.
5. Which client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?
- A. A 32-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse who quit smoking 10 years ago.
- B. A 43-year-old male with a family history of CAD and a cholesterol level of 158 (8.8 mmol/L).
- C. A 56-year-old male with an HDL of 60 (3.3 mmol/L) who takes atorvastatin.
- D. A 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 188 (10.4 mmol/L).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The 65-year-old female who is obese with a high LDL level of 188 (10.4 mmol/L) is at the greatest risk for coronary artery disease. Obesity and high LDL cholesterol levels are significant risk factors for developing coronary artery disease. While factors like mitral valve prolapse (choice A) and a family history of CAD (choice B) can contribute to the risk, they are not as significant as obesity and high LDL levels. Choice C, a 56-year-old male with high HDL and taking atorvastatin, is actually at lower risk due to the high HDL levels and being on statin therapy, which helps reduce cholesterol levels and lower the risk of coronary artery disease.
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