HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client is being taught about self-catheterization in the home setting. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Wash your hands before and after self-catheterization.
- B. Use lubricant on the tip of the catheter before insertion.
- C. A & B
- D. Self-catheterize at least twice a day or every 12 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In teaching a client about self-catheterization, it is essential to emphasize proper hand hygiene before and after the procedure to prevent infections. Using lubricant on the catheter helps with insertion and reduces discomfort. Therefore, statements A and B are correct and should be included in the client's teaching. Option D is incorrect because self-catheterization frequency should be individualized based on the client's needs, and a specific time frame like every 12 hours may not be suitable for everyone. Choosing a smaller lumen catheter is preferred over a larger one. Self-catheterization should not be limited to a specific time frame but should be based on the individual's needs and voiding patterns. Therefore, option C is the correct choice as it includes the two essential statements for teaching self-catheterization in the home setting.
2. During a routine clinic visit, a nurse is assessing a 48-year-old client with a history of smoking. The client, who exercises regularly, reports calf pain during exercise that disappears at rest. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?
- A. Heart rate of 57 bpm.
- B. SpO2 of 94% on room air.
- C. Blood pressure of 134/82.
- D. Ankle-brachial index of 0.65.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An Ankle-Brachial Index of 0.65 suggests moderate arterial vascular disease in a client experiencing intermittent claudication, indicating compromised blood flow to the lower extremities during exercise. This finding requires further evaluation to assess the severity of arterial insufficiency and determine appropriate interventions. Choice A (Heart rate of 57 bpm) is within the normal range for an adult at rest and indicates good cardiovascular fitness. Choice B (SpO2 of 94% on room air) is slightly lower than the normal range but is generally acceptable in a healthy individual. Choice C (Blood pressure of 134/82) falls within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns in this context.
3. A male client comes into the emergency department with a serum creatinine of 2.2 mg/dL and a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 24 mg/dL. What question should the nurse ask first when taking this client’s history?
- A. Have you been taking any aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen recently?
- B. Do you have anyone in your family with renal failure?
- C. Have you had a diet that is low in protein recently?
- D. Has a relative had a kidney transplant lately?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct question to ask the client first is about their recent intake of nephrotoxic medications like aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen. Elevated serum creatinine and BUN levels indicate possible renal issues, making it crucial to assess potential causes such as medication-induced nephrotoxicity. Inquiring about family history of renal failure or recent kidney transplants would not provide immediate insights into the client's current renal condition. While a diet low in protein could influence BUN levels, it is important to address medication history first due to the acute presentation in the emergency department.
4. A client is vomiting. For which acid-base imbalance does the nurse assess the client?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client who is vomiting, the loss of gastric fluid containing hydrochloric acid can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis is caused by the loss of acids such as hydrochloric acid from the body. Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse should assess the client for metabolic alkalosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because vomiting does not typically lead to metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, or respiratory alkalosis.
5. A client who has heart failure is admitted with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Administer 20 mEq of potassium chloride.
- B. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
- C. Arrange a consultation with the dietitian.
- D. Educate about the side effects of diuretics.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia, defined as a serum potassium level below the normal range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L, can lead to changes in myocardial irritability and ECG waveform, potentially causing life-threatening dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to initiate continuous cardiac monitoring to promptly detect any abnormal heart rhythms or ventricular ectopy. This monitoring is crucial for assessing the impact of potassium replacement therapy on the cardiac rhythm and ensuring the safety of the client. While administering potassium chloride is important for correcting the hypokalemia, it should occur after cardiac monitoring is in place. Consulting with a dietitian and educating about diuretic side effects are relevant aspects of care but are not the immediate priority in this situation where cardiac monitoring takes precedence for timely intervention.
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