Nursing Elites

1. In assessing cancer risk, which woman is at greatest risk of developing breast cancer?

• A. A 35-year-old multipara who never breastfed.
• B. A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer.
• C. A 55-year-old whose mother-in-law had bilateral breast cancer.
• D. A 20-year-old whose menarche occurred at age 9.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because family history of breast cancer, specifically in the mother, is a significant risk factor for developing breast cancer. The age of 50 is also a risk factor for breast cancer. Choice A is less likely as breastfeeding can actually reduce the risk of breast cancer. Choice C is less relevant since the risk is higher with a direct family member. Choice D, although early menarche is a risk factor, the age of the individual is much lower compared to the other age-related risk factors.

2. The nurse is assessing an older adult with a pacemaker who leads a sedentary lifestyle. The client reports being unable to perform activities that require physical exertion. The nurse should further assess the client for which of the following?

• A. Left ventricular atrophy.
• B. Irregular heartbeats.
• C. Peripheral vascular occlusion.
• D. Pacemaker function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Left ventricular atrophy. Older adults who lead sedentary lifestyles are at risk of developing left ventricular atrophy, which can lead to decreased cardiac output during physical exertion. This condition can contribute to the client's inability to perform activities requiring physical exertion. Choice B, irregular heartbeats, may be a consideration due to the presence of a pacemaker, but the client's reported inability to perform physically exerting activities is more indicative of a structural issue like left ventricular atrophy rather than a rhythm-related problem. Peripheral vascular occlusion (Choice C) is less likely to be the cause of the client's symptoms compared to the cardiac-related issue of left ventricular atrophy. While assessing pacemaker function (Choice D) is important, the client's symptoms are more suggestive of a cardiac structural issue rather than a malfunction of the pacemaker.

3. Healthcare workers must protect themselves against becoming infected with HIV. The Center for Disease Control has issued guidelines for healthcare workers in relation to protection from HIV. These guidelines include which recommendation?

• A. Place HIV-positive clients in strict isolation and limit visitors.
• B. Wear gloves when coming in contact with the blood or body fluids of any client.
• C. Conduct mandatory HIV testing of those who work with clients with AIDS.
• D. Freeze HIV blood specimens at -70°F to kill the virus.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The CDC guidelines recommend that healthcare workers wear gloves when coming in contact with blood or body fluids from any client since HIV can be infectious before the client becomes aware of their exposure and/or symptomatic. Choice A is incorrect because placing HIV-positive clients in strict isolation and limiting visitors is not a standard practice for HIV infection control. Choice C is incorrect as mandatory HIV testing for those working with AIDS clients is not a CDC recommendation for routine infection control. Choice D is incorrect because freezing HIV blood specimens at -70°F does not kill the virus; HIV can remain infectious even at very low temperatures.

4. The nurse is administering intravenous fluids to a dehydrated patient. On the second day of care, the patient's weight has increased by 2.25 pounds. The nurse would expect that the patient's fluid intake has

• A. equaled urine output.
• B. exceeded urine output by 1 L.
• C. exceeded urine output by 2.5 L.
• D. exceeded urine output by 3 L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight gain of 1 kg, or approximately 2.2 to 2.5 lb, is generally equivalent to 1 liter (L) of fluid retained by the body. In this case, the patient's weight gain of 2.25 pounds suggests an excess fluid retention of approximately 1 liter, indicating that the patient's fluid intake has exceeded urine output by 1 liter. Choices C and D are incorrect as they overestimate the fluid excess based on the patient's weight gain. Choice A is incorrect as it implies an exact balance between fluid intake and urine output, which is not reflected in the given weight increase.

5. A client with Diabetes Insipidus (DI) is being cared for by a nurse. Which data warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Serum sodium of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L)
• B. Dry skin with poor skin turgor
• C. Apical rate of 110 beats per minute
• D. Polyuria and excessive thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum sodium level of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L) is dangerously high and indicates severe dehydration, requiring immediate intervention to prevent neurological damage. The other options are not as critical as high serum sodium levels, which can lead to serious complications such as seizures, coma, and death if not promptly addressed. Dry skin with poor skin turgor and polyuria with excessive thirst are common findings in clients with Diabetes Insipidus and should be managed but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. An apical heart rate of 110 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which could be related to dehydration but is not as urgent as addressing the severe hypernatremia.

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