HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. In assessing cancer risk, which woman is at greatest risk of developing breast cancer?
- A. A 35-year-old multipara who never breastfed.
- B. A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer.
- C. A 55-year-old whose mother-in-law had bilateral breast cancer.
- D. A 20-year-old whose menarche occurred at age 9.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because family history of breast cancer, specifically in the mother, is a significant risk factor for developing breast cancer. The age of 50 is also a risk factor for breast cancer. Choice A is less likely as breastfeeding can actually reduce the risk of breast cancer. Choice C is less relevant since the risk is higher with a direct family member. Choice D, although early menarche is a risk factor, the age of the individual is much lower compared to the other age-related risk factors.
2. The patient is receiving a high dose of tetracycline (Sumycin). Which laboratory values should the nurse monitor while caring for this patient?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
- B. Complete blood counts
- C. Electrolytes
- D. Liver enzyme levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: High doses of tetracyclines can lead to nephrotoxicity, especially when given along with other nephrotoxic drugs. Renal function tests, such as monitoring blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels, should be performed to assess for nephrotoxicity. Monitoring complete blood counts (choice B) is not directly related to tetracycline therapy. Checking electrolytes (choice C) is important but not the priority when monitoring for tetracycline-induced nephrotoxicity. Monitoring liver enzyme levels (choice D) is not typically indicated in the context of tetracycline therapy.
3. The nurse is assessing an older adult with a pacemaker who leads a sedentary lifestyle. The client reports being unable to perform activities that require physical exertion. The nurse should further assess the client for which of the following?
- A. Left ventricular atrophy.
- B. Irregular heartbeats.
- C. Peripheral vascular occlusion.
- D. Pacemaker function.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Left ventricular atrophy. Older adults who lead sedentary lifestyles are at risk of developing left ventricular atrophy, which can lead to decreased cardiac output during physical exertion. This condition can contribute to the client's inability to perform activities requiring physical exertion. Choice B, irregular heartbeats, may be a consideration due to the presence of a pacemaker, but the client's reported inability to perform physically exerting activities is more indicative of a structural issue like left ventricular atrophy rather than a rhythm-related problem. Peripheral vascular occlusion (Choice C) is less likely to be the cause of the client's symptoms compared to the cardiac-related issue of left ventricular atrophy. While assessing pacemaker function (Choice D) is important, the client's symptoms are more suggestive of a cardiac structural issue rather than a malfunction of the pacemaker.
4. A client with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) asks, “Will my children develop this disease?” How should the nurse respond?
- A. No genetic link is known, so your children are not at increased risk.
- B. Your sons will develop this disease because it has a sex-linked gene.
- C. Only if both you and your spouse are carriers of this disease.
- D. Each of your children has a 50% risk of having ADPKD.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Children whose parent has the autosomal dominant form of PKD have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene that causes the disease. ADPKD is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait and therefore is not gender-specific. Both parents do not need to have this disorder. Choice A is incorrect because ADPKD has a known genetic link and a definitive mode of inheritance. Choice B is incorrect as ADPKD is not sex-linked but autosomal dominant. Choice C is incorrect because ADPKD follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern and does not require both parents to be carriers for the child to inherit the disease.
5. After confirming that liquids are allowed, which assessment action should the nurse consider a priority for a client who is fully awake after a gastroscopy?
- A. Listen to bilateral lung and bowel sounds.
- B. Obtain the client's pulse and blood pressure.
- C. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.
- D. Check the client's gag and swallow reflexes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After a gastroscopy, it is crucial for the nurse to prioritize checking the client's gag and swallow reflexes before allowing them to drink anything. This is because the effects of local anesthesia need to dissipate, and the airway's protective reflexes, including the gag and swallow reflexes, must have returned to prevent aspiration. Listening to lung and bowel sounds (Choice A) may be important but does not take precedence over ensuring the client's safety post-gastroscopy. Obtaining the client's pulse and blood pressure (Choice B) is also important but not the priority in this scenario. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void (Choice C) is a routine nursing action and is not directly related to the immediate safety concern of checking the client's gag and swallow reflexes post-gastroscopy.
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