HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. A pregnant client tells the nurse, “I am experiencing a burning pain when I urinate.” How should the nurse respond?
- A. This means labor will start soon. Prepare to go to the hospital.
- B. You probably have a urinary tract infection. Drink more cranberry juice.
- C. Make an appointment with your provider to have your infection treated.
- D. Your pelvic wall is weakening. Pelvic muscle exercises should help.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pregnant clients with a urinary tract infection require prompt and aggressive treatment because cystitis can lead to acute pyelonephritis during pregnancy. The nurse should encourage the client to make an appointment and have the infection treated. Burning pain when urinating does not indicate the start of labor or weakening of pelvic muscles. Choice A is incorrect because burning pain during urination does not signify the start of labor. Choice B is incorrect because while cranberry juice may help prevent urinary tract infections, it is not a treatment. Choice D is incorrect because burning pain when urinating is not indicative of weakening pelvic muscles.
2. A client with renal calculi is being assessed by a nurse. Which question should the nurse ask?
- A. Is there a family history of this problem?
- B. Do you consume cranberry juice?
- C. Do you urinate after sexual intercourse?
- D. Do you have burning sensation during urination?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a client with renal calculi, it is important for the nurse to inquire about a family history of the problem. There is a genetic predisposition associated with renal stone formation, making it essential to assess if other family members have experienced renal stones. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to renal calculi. Consuming cranberry juice is more relevant to urinary tract health, urinating after sexual intercourse is related to preventing urinary tract infections, and experiencing a burning sensation during urination is a symptom commonly associated with urinary tract infections, not renal calculi.
3. A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?
- A. Propranolol (Inderal).
- B. Captopril (Capoten).
- C. Furosemide (Lasix).
- D. Dobutamine (Dobutrex).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol (Inderal) is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent that acts to decrease heart rate and contractility. Sinus bradycardia is a common side effect of beta blockers due to their negative chronotropic effect on the heart. Captopril (Capoten) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not associated with causing bradycardia. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can lead to electrolyte imbalances but not commonly linked to bradycardia. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that increases heart rate and contractility, making it an unlikely cause of bradycardia in this scenario.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has recurrent urinary tract infections. The patient’s current infection is not responding to an antibiotic that has been used successfully several times in the past. The nurse understands that this is most likely due to
- A. acquired bacterial resistance.
- B. cross-resistance.
- C. inherent bacterial resistance.
- D. transferred resistance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: acquired bacterial resistance. Acquired resistance happens when an organism has been exposed to the antibacterial drug, making it less effective over time. Cross-resistance (B) occurs when resistance to one drug leads to resistance to another. Inherent resistance (C) happens without prior exposure to the drug, meaning the bacteria are naturally resistant. Transferred resistance (D) involves the transfer of resistant genes from one organism to another, contributing to resistance development.
5. A client’s baseline vital signs are temperature 98°F oral, pulse 74 beats/min, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and blood pressure 124/76 mm Hg. The client suddenly spikes a fever to 103°F. Which of the following respiratory rates would the nurse anticipate as part of the body’s response to the change in client status?
- A. 12 breaths/min
- B. 16 breaths/min
- C. 18 breaths/min
- D. 22 breaths/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client experiences a fever, there is an increase in body temperature, leading to a higher metabolic rate and oxygen demand. As a result, the respiratory rate typically increases to meet the body's increased oxygen needs. Therefore, in response to the fever spike from 98°F to 103°F, the nurse would anticipate a higher respiratory rate. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in body temperature, not an increase as seen in fever, would lead to a decrease in respiratory rate to conserve energy and oxygen consumption.
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