HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. A pregnant client tells the nurse, “I am experiencing a burning pain when I urinate.” How should the nurse respond?
- A. This means labor will start soon. Prepare to go to the hospital.
- B. You probably have a urinary tract infection. Drink more cranberry juice.
- C. Make an appointment with your provider to have your infection treated.
- D. Your pelvic wall is weakening. Pelvic muscle exercises should help.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pregnant clients with a urinary tract infection require prompt and aggressive treatment because cystitis can lead to acute pyelonephritis during pregnancy. The nurse should encourage the client to make an appointment and have the infection treated. Burning pain when urinating does not indicate the start of labor or weakening of pelvic muscles. Choice A is incorrect because burning pain during urination does not signify the start of labor. Choice B is incorrect because while cranberry juice may help prevent urinary tract infections, it is not a treatment. Choice D is incorrect because burning pain when urinating is not indicative of weakening pelvic muscles.
2. A client is starting urinary bladder training. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s teaching?
- A. Use the toilet when you first feel the urge, rather than at specific intervals.
- B. Try to consciously hold your urine until the scheduled toileting time.
- C. Initially try to use the toilet at least every half hour for the first 24 hours.
- D. The toileting interval can be increased once you have been continent for a week.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In urinary bladder training, the client should be taught to try to consciously hold their urine until the scheduled toileting time. This helps in training the bladder to hold urine for longer periods. Option A is incorrect because the goal is to consciously hold urine, not void immediately. Option C is incorrect as toileting at least every half hour may not promote bladder training. Option D is incorrect as increasing the toileting interval should be based on the client's comfort and progress, not just after being continent for a week.
3. The nurse is taking the vital signs of a client after hemodialysis. Blood pressure is 110/58 mm Hg, pulse 66 beats/min, and temperature is 99.8°F (37.6°C). What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Administer fluids to increase blood pressure.
- B. Check the white blood cell count.
- C. Monitor the client’s temperature.
- D. Connect the client to an electrocardiographic (ECG) monitor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After hemodialysis, it is crucial to monitor the client's temperature because the dialysate is warmed to increase diffusion and prevent hypothermia. The client's temperature might reflect the temperature of the dialysate. There is no need to administer fluids to increase blood pressure as the vital signs are within normal limits. Checking the white blood cell count or connecting the client to an ECG monitor is not necessary based on the information provided.
4. A patient has begun taking spironolactone (Aldactone) in addition to a thiazide diuretic. With the addition of the spironolactone, the nurse will counsel this patient to
- A. not take a potassium supplement daily.
- B. recognize that abdominal cramping is a common side effect.
- C. report decreased urine output to the provider.
- D. take these medications in the morning.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When combining a potassium-sparing diuretic like spironolactone with a thiazide diuretic, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia, especially in patients with poor renal function. Therefore, the patient should be educated to report any decrease in urine output, which could indicate a potential issue with kidney function. Choice A is incorrect because taking additional potassium supplements can further increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice B is incorrect as abdominal cramping is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of medication administration is not directly related to the addition of spironolactone and thiazide diuretic; there is no specific recommendation to take these medications only at bedtime.
5. After educating a client with a history of renal calculi, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should drink at least 3 liters of fluid every day.
- B. I will eliminate all dairy or sources of calcium from my diet.
- C. Aspirin and aspirin-containing products can lead to stones.
- D. The doctor can give me antibiotics at the first sign of a stone.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To prevent the formation of renal calculi, it is essential to maintain adequate hydration as dehydration can contribute to the precipitation of minerals leading to stone formation. Therefore, the correct statement indicating understanding of the teaching is choice A. Increasing fluid intake helps dilute urine and reduces the risk of stone formation. Eliminating all sources of calcium is not recommended as calcium is essential for various bodily functions and eliminating it can lead to other health issues. Aspirin and aspirin-containing products do not directly cause kidney stones. Antibiotics are not used to prevent or treat renal calculi, as they are not caused by bacterial infections.
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