Nursing Elites

1. A client is being discharged after lithotripsy for a urinary calculus. Which statements should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Finish the prescribed antibiotic even if you are feeling better.
• B. Drink at least 3 liters of fluid each day.
• C. The bruising on your back may take several weeks to resolve.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After lithotripsy for a urinary calculus, it is important for the client to complete the prescribed antibiotic course to prevent urinary tract infections. Drinking at least 3 liters of fluid daily helps dilute stone-forming crystals, prevent dehydration, and promote urine flow. Bruising on the back may occur after the procedure and can take several weeks to resolve. Additionally, the client may experience blood in the urine for several days post-procedure. Reporting any pain, fever, chills, or urination difficulties to the healthcare provider is essential, as these symptoms could indicate infection or stone formation. Choice D is correct as all the statements are appropriate for the client's discharge teaching. Choices A, B, and C are individually correct based on the rationale provided, making D the correct answer.

2. A client has just returned to the nursing unit after bronchoscopy. To which intervention should the nurse give priority?

• A. Assessing the client for the return of the gag reflex
• B. Administering pain medication
• C. Encouraging copious fluid intake
• D. Ambulating the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After bronchoscopy, the priority intervention for the nurse is to assess the client for the return of the gag reflex. This assessment is crucial to ensure the client's safety and prevent aspiration. Keeping the client on nothing-by-mouth status until the gag reflex returns is essential. Administering pain medication, encouraging fluid intake, and ambulating the client are important interventions but assessing the gag reflex takes precedence due to the risk of aspiration post-bronchoscopy.

3. Which of the following assessments is the most important for a patient receiving IV potassium?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Heart rate
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient receiving IV potassium is monitoring blood pressure. IV potassium can cause significant changes in cardiac function, leading to adverse effects such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. While respiratory rate, heart rate, and oxygen saturation are important parameters to monitor in clinical practice, blood pressure takes precedence in patients receiving IV potassium due to its direct impact on cardiovascular function. Changes in blood pressure can be an early indicator of potassium-induced cardiac complications, making it crucial to monitor closely during administration.

4. In a patient with cirrhosis, which of the following lab results is most concerning?

• A. Elevated liver enzymes.
• B. Low albumin levels.
• C. Elevated bilirubin levels.
• D. Low platelet count.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with cirrhosis, a low platelet count is the most concerning lab result. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, is common in cirrhosis due to impaired platelet production in the liver. It significantly increases the risk of bleeding and can lead to serious complications such as hemorrhage. Elevated liver enzymes (Choice A) are expected in cirrhosis but may not directly indicate the severity of the disease. Low albumin levels (Choice B) are common in cirrhosis and can contribute to fluid retention but do not pose an immediate risk of bleeding. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are also expected in cirrhosis and typically indicate impaired liver function but do not directly increase the risk of bleeding as much as a low platelet count.

5. In assessing cancer risk, which woman is at greatest risk of developing breast cancer?

• A. A 35-year-old multipara who never breastfed.
• B. A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer.
• C. A 55-year-old whose mother-in-law had bilateral breast cancer.
• D. A 20-year-old whose menarche occurred at age 9.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because family history of breast cancer, specifically in the mother, is a significant risk factor for developing breast cancer. The age of 50 is also a risk factor for breast cancer. Choice A is less likely as breastfeeding can actually reduce the risk of breast cancer. Choice C is less relevant since the risk is higher with a direct family member. Choice D, although early menarche is a risk factor, the age of the individual is much lower compared to the other age-related risk factors.

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