HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. During spring break, a young adult presents to the urgent care clinic and reports a stiff neck, a fever for the past 6 hours, and a headache. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement first?
- A. Initiate isolation precautions
- B. Administer an antipyretic
- C. Draw blood cultures
- D. Prepare for lumbar puncture
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate isolation precautions. This is the priority action because the patient presents with symptoms that could be indicative of meningitis, an infectious disease that requires isolation to prevent its spread. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help manage the fever but does not address the need for isolation. Drawing blood cultures (Choice C) and preparing for a lumbar puncture (Choice D) are important steps in diagnosing meningitis but should come after initiating isolation precautions to prevent potential transmission of the infection to others.
2. A patient’s serum osmolality is 305 mOsm/kg. Which term describes this patient’s body fluid osmolality?
- A. Iso-osmolar
- B. Hypo-osmolar
- C. Hyperosmolar
- D. Isotonic
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct term to describe a patient with a serum osmolality of 305 mOsm/kg is 'hyperosmolar.' Normal osmolality ranges from 280 to 300 mOsm/kg. A patient with an osmolality above this range is considered hyperosmolar. Choice A ('Iso-osmolar') implies an equal osmolality, which is not the case in this scenario. Choice B ('Hypo-osmolar') suggests a lower osmolality, which is incorrect based on the provided serum osmolality value. Choice D ('Isotonic') refers to a solution having the same osmolality as another solution, not describing the specific scenario of this patient being above the normal range.
3. Which of the following is the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure?
- A. Daily weight measurements.
- B. Monitoring intake and output.
- C. Assessing skin turgor.
- D. Checking for peripheral edema.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Daily weight measurements are the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure. Changes in weight reflect fluid retention or loss more accurately than other methods. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential but may not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid status. Skin turgor (choice C) and checking for peripheral edema (choice D) are more indicative of dehydration and fluid overload, respectively, rather than overall fluid balance.
4. A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is being discharged. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Take your blood pressure every morning.
- B. Weigh yourself at the same time each day.
- C. Contact your provider if you have visual disturbances.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) should be educated on monitoring their blood pressure daily and weighing themselves consistently to detect any changes promptly. It is essential to contact the healthcare provider if visual disturbances occur, as this could indicate a complication such as a berry aneurysm associated with PKD. Foul-smelling or bloody urine should also prompt notification to the provider as they could signify urinary tract infections or glomerular injury. Choices A, B, and C are correct as they address crucial aspects of managing PKD and its potential complications. Choices A and B help in monitoring for changes in blood pressure and fluid status, while choice C focuses on detecting possible neurological complications. Choices A, B, and C are relevant to PKD management and should be included in the client's discharge teaching. Choices that mention diarrhea and renal stones are not directly associated with PKD; therefore, teaching related to these conditions would be irrelevant in this context.
5. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 mL/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion site of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Determine which IV medications have recently been administered.
- B. Explain that without redness or edema, there is no need to re-start the IV.
- C. Consult with the healthcare provider about the best location to start a new IV.
- D. Convert the IV to a saline lock and continue to monitor the site.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Converting the IV to a saline lock and continuing to monitor the site is the correct action in this scenario. When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site without redness or edema, it may indicate phlebitis or irritation. Replacing the IV may not be necessary if there are no signs of infection or infiltration. Determining the IV medications administered or consulting with the healthcare provider to start a new IV are not immediate actions required for pain management at the insertion site. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to convert the IV to a saline lock and closely observe for any changes or complications.
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