Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is to collect a sputum specimen for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) from a client. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Ask the client to cough sputum into a container
• B. Have the client take several deep breaths
• C. Provide an appropriate specimen container
• D. Assist with oral hygiene

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assisting with oral hygiene is the essential initial step before collecting a sputum specimen for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) to prevent contamination of the sample. Ensuring the client's mouth is clean reduces the risk of introducing unwanted bacteria into the specimen. Asking the client to cough sputum into a container, having the client take deep breaths, and providing a specimen container are important steps in the specimen collection process, but they should follow ensuring proper oral hygiene.

2. The nurse is teaching an 87-year-old client methods for maintaining regular bowel movements. The nurse would caution the client to AVOID

• A. Glycerin suppositories
• B. Fiber supplements
• C. Laxatives
• D. Stool softeners

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Laxatives. Laxatives can be harsh on elderly clients, leading to dependence and potential side effects. While fiber supplements (B) and stool softeners (D) are generally safe options to promote regular bowel movements, laxatives should be used cautiously in older adults due to their potential risks. Glycerin suppositories (A) can also be a safe and effective option for managing constipation in the elderly, but laxatives should be avoided unless deemed necessary by a healthcare provider.

3. A client is being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide (Lasix). Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Decreased appetite
• C. Weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours
• D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A rapid weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours suggests significant fluid loss, which is concerning in clients on diuretics like furosemide. Increased urine output (choice A) is an expected effect of diuretic therapy. Decreased appetite (choice B) is a common side effect but not as concerning as rapid weight loss. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg (choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most concerning finding in a client being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide.

4. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?

• A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
• B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
• C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
• D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial point to reinforce to the patient after a vasectomy is the need for continued contraception until it is confirmed that the ejaculate is sperm-free. Choice A emphasizes this by highlighting the importance of using another form of contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm. This is essential to prevent unintended pregnancies. Choices B, C, and D do not address the key point of ensuring contraception until sperm absence is confirmed and are therefore not as important to reinforce in this scenario.

5. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?

• A. Changing the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours
• B. Monitoring the TPN infusion rate closely
• C. Keeping the head of the bed elevated
• D. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. This practice helps prevent microbial growth and contamination in the TPN solution. Monitoring the infusion rate closely (choice B) is important for preventing metabolic complications but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Keeping the head of the bed elevated (choice C) is beneficial for preventing aspiration in feeding tube placement but is unrelated to reducing infection risk in TPN. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing (choice D) is essential for patient comfort and preventing metabolic complications but does not specifically address infection risk reduction.

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