HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. Which statement best describes the effects of immobility in children?
- A. Immobility prevents the progression of language and fine motor development
- B. Immobility in children has similar physical effects to those found in adults
- C. Children are more susceptible to the effects of immobility than adults are
- D. Children are likely to have prolonged immobility with subsequent complications
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immobility in children indeed has physical effects similar to those found in adults. However, it can also significantly impact their development and growth. Choice A is incorrect because immobility does not solely prevent language and fine motor development but affects various aspects. Choice C is incorrect as susceptibility to the effects of immobility may vary between children and adults depending on individual factors. Choice D is incorrect as not all children are likely to have prolonged immobility with subsequent complications.
2. A primigravida in the third trimester is hospitalized for preeclampsia. The nurse determines that the client's blood pressure is increasing. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the protein level in urine
- B. Have the client turn to the left side
- C. Take the temperature
- D. Monitor the urine output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of preeclampsia with increasing blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to have the client turn to the left side. This position helps improve blood flow to the placenta and fetus, reducing the risk of complications. Checking the protein level in urine (Choice A) is important for assessing preeclampsia but not the immediate priority when blood pressure is increasing. Taking the temperature (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing increased blood pressure in preeclampsia. Monitoring urine output (Choice D) is essential but not the first action to take when blood pressure is rising.
3. The nurse is caring for a client undergoing the placement of a central venous catheter line. Which of the following would require the nurse's immediate attention?
- A. Pallor
- B. Increased temperature
- C. Dyspnea
- D. Involuntary muscle spasms
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dyspnea indicates a potential complication such as pneumothorax or incorrect catheter placement, requiring immediate attention. Pallor may indicate anemia but is not as urgent as dyspnea in this context. Increased temperature could be a sign of infection but is not as critical as respiratory distress. Involuntary muscle spasms are not directly related to central venous catheter placement and are of lower priority compared to respiratory issues.
4. When speaking with a group of teens, which side effect of chemotherapy for cancer would the nurse expect this group to be more interested in discussing?
- A. Mouth sores
- B. Fatigue
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Hair loss
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hair loss is the correct answer. Teens are often more concerned about hair loss because of its visible impact and social implications. While mouth sores, fatigue, and diarrhea are also common side effects of chemotherapy, hair loss tends to be a significant concern for teens due to its effect on self-image and confidence.
5. The nurse is caring for a child immediately after surgical correction of a ventricular septal defect. Which of the following nursing assessments should be a priority?
- A. Assess nail beds for color and refill
- B. Assess for postoperative arrhythmias
- C. Auscultate for pulmonary congestion
- D. Monitor equality of peripheral pulses
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Postoperative arrhythmias are a common and potentially serious complication after cardiac surgery, making them a priority to monitor. Assessing for postoperative arrhythmias takes precedence over other assessments like checking nail beds for color and refill, auscultating for pulmonary congestion, or monitoring peripheral pulses as arrhythmias can have immediate and severe implications for the child's health.
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