HESI RN TEST BANK

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

What should a client with diarrhea avoid consuming?

    A. Orange juice

    B. Tuna

    C. Eggs

    D. Macaroni

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client with diarrhea should avoid consuming orange juice. Orange juice is high in sugar content, which can worsen diarrhea symptoms by drawing water into the intestines, potentially leading to further dehydration and discomfort. Tuna, eggs, and macaroni are generally well-tolerated and do not exacerbate diarrhea symptoms, making them more suitable food choices for individuals experiencing diarrhea.

During the care of a client with a salmonella infection, what is the primary nursing intervention to limit transmission?

  • A. Wash hands thoroughly before and after client contact
  • B. Wear gloves when in contact with body secretions
  • C. Double glove when in contact with feces or vomitus
  • D. Wear gloves when disposing of contaminated linens

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to wash hands thoroughly before and after client contact when caring for a client with a salmonella infection. This approach is crucial in preventing the transmission of the infection. While wearing gloves when in contact with body secretions (Choice B), double gloving when in contact with feces or vomitus (Choice C), and wearing gloves when disposing of contaminated linens (Choice D) are important infection control measures, the primary intervention to limit the spread of salmonella is proper hand hygiene.

During an assessment on a client in congestive heart failure, what is most likely to be revealed upon auscultation of the heart?

  • A. S3 ventricular gallop
  • B. Apical click
  • C. Systolic murmur
  • D. Split S2

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: S3 ventricular gallop. An S3 sound is a common finding in congestive heart failure due to fluid overload in the heart. It is associated with decreased ventricular compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. A systolic murmur may be heard in conditions like mitral regurgitation but is not specific to congestive heart failure. A split S2 is associated with conditions like pulmonary hypertension, not congestive heart failure.

For a client with chronic kidney disease having a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL, which intervention should the nurse perform first?

  • A. Administer erythropoietin as ordered
  • B. Monitor the client's blood pressure
  • C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
  • D. Assess the client for signs of fatigue

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering erythropoietin is the priority intervention for a client with chronic kidney disease and a low hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, helping to manage anemia in these clients. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation level, and assessing for signs of fatigue are important aspects of care but addressing the anemia by administering erythropoietin takes precedence to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and overall well-being.

A client has received 2 units of whole blood today following an episode of GI bleeding. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse monitor most closely?

  • A. Bleeding time
  • B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
  • C. White blood cells
  • D. Platelets

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels should be monitored closely after blood transfusions to assess the effectiveness and identify any complications. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps evaluate the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and blood volume. While platelets are crucial for clotting, they are not typically affected immediately after a blood transfusion. White blood cell count monitoring is more relevant in assessing infection or immune response, not directly related to a blood transfusion. Bleeding time measures platelet function, which is not the primary concern immediately after a blood transfusion.

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