HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. A client is receiving teaching about a high-fiber diet to manage constipation. Which statement indicates the best choice for a high-fiber diet?
- A. Eating one medium apple is a good snack option.
- B. Selecting a ½ cup of sweet potatoes for starch is a great choice.
- C. Choosing a ½ cup of bran cereal for breakfast is ideal.
- D. Opting for 1 ounce of almonds when hungry midday is recommended.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because bran cereal is a high-fiber food that can effectively alleviate constipation by promoting regular bowel movements. Option A, an apple, while a healthy snack, may not provide as much fiber as bran cereal. Option B, sweet potatoes, are nutritious but may not be as high in fiber as bran cereal. Option D, almonds, are a good source of healthy fats and protein but do not provide as much fiber as bran cereal.
2. A client who has chronic lymphocytic leukemia is starting chemotherapy treatments and asks if she needs to make any dietary changes. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Use sugar-free gum if you experience a metallic taste in your mouth.
- B. Drink fluids at mealtime to prevent early satiety.
- C. Foods that are higher in fat can help nausea.
- D. Raw fruits and vegetables will be easier for your body to digest.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using sugar-free gum can help alleviate the metallic taste often experienced during chemotherapy treatments. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking fluids at mealtime may worsen early satiety, foods higher in fat can exacerbate nausea, and raw fruits and vegetables may be harder for the body to digest and may pose a risk of infection for individuals with compromised immune systems.
3. A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis has a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube for the administration of feedings and medications. Which nursing action is appropriate?
- A. Pulverize all medications into a powdery condition
- B. Squeeze the tube before using it to break up stagnant liquids
- C. Cleanse the skin around the tube daily with hydrogen peroxide
- D. Flush adequately with water before and after using the tube
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube, flushing the tube adequately with water before and after use is essential. This action helps prevent clogging and ensures the proper administration of feedings and medications. Choice A is incorrect because pulverizing all medications into a powdery condition is not necessary for PEG tube administration. Choice B is incorrect as squeezing the tube to break up stagnant liquids may damage the tube. Choice C is incorrect because cleansing the skin around the tube daily with hydrogen peroxide can be too harsh and lead to skin irritation.
4. A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who is receiving chemotherapy and is showing manifestations of malnutrition. Which of the following indicates a Vitamin C deficiency?
- A. Dry, red conjunctiva
- B. Swollen, bleeding gums
- C. Inflammation of the tongue
- D. Pale, brittle nails
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Swollen, bleeding gums are a classic sign of scurvy, which is caused by a deficiency in Vitamin C. Dry, red conjunctiva, inflammation of the tongue, and pale, brittle nails are not specific manifestations of Vitamin C deficiency, making them incorrect choices.
5. The nurse is caring for a client in hypertensive crisis in an intensive care unit. The priority assessment in the first hour of care is
- A. Heart rate
- B. Pedal pulses
- C. Lung sounds
- D. Pupil responses
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assessing pupil responses is crucial in a client with hypertensive crisis to monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure, which can indicate potential neurological complications. While heart rate, pedal pulses, and lung sounds are important assessments, they do not take precedence over neurological assessments in this critical situation.
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