HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?
- A. grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk
- B. roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans
- C. peanut butter sandwich, banana, and iced tea
- D. barbecue beef, baked beans, and cole slaw
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.
2. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of these instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. You should avoid eating or drinking anything after midnight the day before the test.
- B. You may have a light breakfast the morning of the test.
- C. You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.
- D. You will need to avoid taking any medications the day before the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.' Before a colonoscopy, it is essential to cleanse the colon thoroughly by drinking a bowel preparation solution. This helps to ensure that the colon is clear for the procedure, allowing for better visualization and examination of the colon. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding eating or drinking after midnight, having a light breakfast, and avoiding medications are not specific instructions related to the colonoscopy preparation process.
3. The nurse is planning care for a client with a CVA. Which of the following measures planned by the nurse would be most effective in preventing skin breakdown?
- A. Place the client in the wheelchair for four hours each day
- B. Pad the bony prominences
- C. Reposition every two hours
- D. Massage reddened bony prominence
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Repositioning every two hours is the most effective measure in preventing skin breakdown for a client with a CVA. This practice helps to relieve pressure on the skin, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. Placing the client in a wheelchair for extended periods (Choice A) can increase pressure on specific areas, leading to skin breakdown. Padding bony prominences (Choice B) can provide some protection but may not address the root cause of pressure ulcers. Massaging reddened bony prominences (Choice D) can potentially worsen the condition by causing further damage to already compromised skin.
4. A client is being treated for tuberculosis (TB). Which of these statements indicates the client understands the transmission of TB?
- A. I need to wear a mask when I go out in public to prevent spreading the infection.
- B. I need to take my medication as prescribed to prevent spreading the infection to others.
- C. I need to cover my mouth when I cough to prevent spreading the infection.
- D. I need to isolate myself from others until my treatment is complete to prevent spreading the infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because wearing a mask in public can help prevent the spread of TB to others. Choice B is incorrect as taking medication as prescribed helps in treating the infection within the individual but does not directly prevent spreading it to others. Choice C is important for respiratory hygiene but may not be sufficient to prevent transmission. Choice D, isolation until treatment is complete, is crucial for preventing the spread but is not specifically about understanding transmission.
5. A healthcare professional assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?
- A. Flaccid paralysis
- B. Pupils fixed and dilated
- C. Diminished spinal reflexes
- D. Reduced sensory responses
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pupils fixed and dilated. Fixed and dilated pupils are a critical neurological sign that indicates severe neurological damage or brain herniation, posing a significant concern for the patient's condition. Flaccid paralysis (choice A) typically indicates lower motor neuron injury, while diminished spinal reflexes (choice C) and reduced sensory responses (choice D) may suggest various neurological issues but are not as acutely concerning as fixed and dilated pupils in this scenario.
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