A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?

A. grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk

B. roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans

C. peanut butter sandwich, banana, and iced tea

D. barbecue beef, baked beans, and cole slaw

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.

The nurse is providing care for a client with a new tracheostomy. Which of these assessments is a priority?

• A. Checking the client's oxygen saturation level
• B. Monitoring the client's pain level
• C. Checking the tracheostomy site for signs of infection
• D. Monitoring the client's level of consciousness

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the priority assessment is checking the tracheostomy site for signs of infection. This is essential to detect early signs of complications such as infection, which can lead to serious issues. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important but not as critical as ensuring the tracheostomy site is free from infection. Pain assessment and level of consciousness are also important but secondary to assessing for signs of infection in this scenario.

A client has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which information is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?

• A. It is a condition in which one or more tumors, called gastrinomas, form in the pancreas or in the upper part of the small intestine (duodenum).
• B. It is critical to promptly report any findings of peptic ulcers to your health care provider.
• C. Treatment consists of medications to reduce acid and heal any peptic ulcers and, if possible, surgery to remove any tumors.
• D. The average age at diagnosis is 50 years, and peptic ulcers may occur in unusual areas of the stomach or intestine.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prompt reporting of peptic ulcers is crucial in managing Zollinger-Ellison syndrome to prevent complications and guide treatment. While choices A, C, and D provide relevant information about the condition and its treatment, the most important aspect in the client's care is the prompt reporting of peptic ulcers. This is because untreated peptic ulcers in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can lead to serious complications such as gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation. Therefore, ensuring timely communication with the healthcare provider is essential for effective management of the condition.

An 86-year-old nursing home resident who has decreased mental status is hospitalized with pneumonic infiltrates in the right lower lobe. When the nurse assists the client with a clear liquid diet, the client begins to cough. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Add a thickening agent to the fluids
• B. Check the client's gag reflex
• C. Feed the client only solid foods
• D. Increase the rate of intravenous fluids

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex is crucial in this situation as coughing while consuming liquids can indicate a risk of aspiration. Assessing the gag reflex can help determine if the client is safe to swallow without inhaling fluids into the lungs, which could lead to further respiratory complications. Adding a thickening agent may not address the underlying issue of aspiration risk. Feeding the client only solid foods is not appropriate without assessing the swallowing safety first. Increasing the rate of intravenous fluids does not directly address the client's difficulty with liquid intake.

A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

• A. Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
• B. Assess for dyspnea or stridor
• C. Initiate intravenous therapy
• D. Administer pain medication

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.