Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?

• A. grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk
• B. roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans
• C. peanut butter sandwich, banana, and iced tea
• D. barbecue beef, baked beans, and cole slaw

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.

2. The health care provider order reads 'aspirate nasogastric feeding (NG) tube every 4 hours and check pH of aspirate.' The pH of the aspirate is 10. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Hold the tube feeding and notify the provider
• B. Administer the tube feeding as scheduled
• C. Irrigate the tube with diet cola soda
• D. Apply intermittent suction to the feeding tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A pH of 10 indicates improper placement of the NG tube, requiring notification of the provider and holding the feeding. Choice B is incorrect because administering the tube feeding could lead to complications due to the improper placement. Choice C is incorrect as irrigating the tube with diet cola soda is not a standard practice for addressing this issue. Choice D is incorrect as applying intermittent suction does not address the problem of improper placement indicated by the high pH level.

3. What is the most effective nursing intervention to prevent atelectasis from developing in a postoperative client?

• A. Maintain adequate hydration
• B. Assist the client to turn, deep breathe, and cough
• C. Ambulate the client within 12 hours
• D. Splint the incision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to turn, deep breathe, and cough. This intervention helps to expand the lungs and prevent atelectasis in postoperative clients. Maintaining adequate hydration is important for overall health but is not the most effective intervention for preventing atelectasis. Ambulating the client within 12 hours is beneficial for preventing complications after surgery, but it may not be as directly effective in preventing atelectasis as turning, deep breathing, and coughing. Splinting the incision is important for postoperative care, but it does not specifically address the prevention of atelectasis.

4. A client with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Which of these assessments is the highest priority for the nurse to perform?

• A. Auscultation of breath sounds
• B. Measurement of peak expiratory flow
• C. Observation of the client's use of accessory muscles
• D. Assessment of the client's skin color

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Auscultation of breath sounds is the highest priority assessment in a client with a history of asthma experiencing difficulty breathing. It helps the nurse evaluate the severity of the asthma exacerbation by listening for wheezing, crackles, or decreased breath sounds. This assessment guides treatment decisions, such as administering bronchodilators or oxygen therapy. Measurement of peak expiratory flow, although important in assessing asthma severity, may not be feasible in an emergency situation where immediate intervention is needed. Observation of accessory muscle use and assessment of skin color are also important assessments in asthma exacerbation, but auscultation of breath sounds takes precedence in determining the need for urgent interventions.

5. A healthcare professional assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?

• A. Flaccid paralysis
• B. Pupils fixed and dilated
• C. Diminished spinal reflexes
• D. Reduced sensory responses

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pupils fixed and dilated. Fixed and dilated pupils are a critical neurological sign that indicates severe neurological damage or brain herniation, posing a significant concern for the patient's condition. Flaccid paralysis (choice A) typically indicates lower motor neuron injury, while diminished spinal reflexes (choice C) and reduced sensory responses (choice D) may suggest various neurological issues but are not as acutely concerning as fixed and dilated pupils in this scenario.

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