Nursing Elites

1. While teaching a group of adults about health promotion activities, a nurse identifies a behavior that poses the most significant risk factor for the development of skin cancer. Which behavior should the nurse address?

• A. Consuming a high-fat diet
• B. Using tanning beds
• C. Smoking cigarettes
• D. Drinking alcohol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using tanning beds is the most significant risk factor for developing skin cancer. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation from tanning beds damages the skin and increases the risk of skin cancer. Consuming a high-fat diet, smoking cigarettes, and drinking alcohol are unhealthy behaviors but are not directly linked to the development of skin cancer like UV exposure from tanning beds.

2. Several clients on a telemetry unit are scheduled for discharge in the morning, but a telemetry-monitored bed is needed immediately. The charge nurse should make arrangements to transfer which client to another medical unit?

• A. Learning to self-administer insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus
• B. Ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago
• C. Wearing a sling immobilizer following permanent pacemaker insertion earlier that day
• D. Experiencing syncopal episodes resulting from the dehydration caused by severe diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because transferring a stable client who is learning self-care, such as self-administering insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, provides the needed telemetry-monitored bed without compromising the client's care. Choice B should not be transferred as the client is ambulatory following surgery and does not require telemetry monitoring. Choice C should not be transferred as the client is wearing a sling immobilizer following pacemaker insertion, which requires close monitoring. Choice D should not be transferred as the client is experiencing syncopal episodes due to severe dehydration, necessitating telemetry monitoring for immediate intervention.

3. At a community health fair, a 50-year-old woman tells the nurse that she has an annual physical exam that includes a clinical breast exam and an annual mammogram. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Encourage the woman to explore her fears about breast cancer.
• B. Ask the woman if she also performs monthly breast self-exams.
• C. Commend the woman for adhering to the recommended cancer detection guidelines.
• D. Advise the woman that mammograms are only needed every two years at her age.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Monthly breast self-exams are essential for early detection of breast cancer. While annual clinical breast exams and mammograms are important, monthly self-exams enhance early detection by helping women become familiar with their breasts and notice any changes. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the importance of self-exams. Choice C is incorrect as it prematurely commends without ensuring the woman is conducting self-exams. Choice D is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about the frequency of mammograms needed.

4. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

5. A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is placed on drug therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). The client should be instructed to report which effect(s) of the medication to the healthcare provider?

• A. Reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids
• B. Bloody or blood-tinged urine
• C. Blurring of vision
• D. Weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a week

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin (Rifadin) commonly causes a reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect but should be reported to the healthcare provider for monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with rifampin therapy. Bloody or blood-tinged urine may indicate other issues such as urinary tract infection or kidney problems, blurring of vision may suggest eye problems, and significant weight gain could be related to various health conditions unrelated to rifampin.

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