Nursing Elites

1. The nurse observes a client in a wheelchair with a vest restraint in place. What nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Assess the need for continued restraint
• B. Check the client for urinary incontinence
• C. Determine skin integrity under the vest
• D. Perform range-of-motion exercises on extremities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the need for continued restraint. This is the most important nursing intervention as it ensures the client's safety and autonomy. Checking for urinary incontinence (Choice B) may be important but is not the priority in this situation. Determining skin integrity under the vest (Choice C) is essential but not as crucial as assessing the need for continued restraint. Performing range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) is important for client mobility but not the priority when a restraint is in place.

2. One hour after delivery, the nurse is unable to palpate the uterine fundus of a client and notes a large amount of lochia on the perineal pad. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Empty the bladder using an indwelling urinary catheter
• B. Increase the rate of the IV containing oxytocin (Pitocin)
• C. Assess for shock by determining the blood pressure
• D. Perform gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus is the initial intervention to help contract the uterus and reduce bleeding, which is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Emptying the bladder can help with fundal displacement, but massage should be done first to stimulate uterine contractions. Increasing the IV oxytocin rate is a possible intervention but not the initial priority. Assessing for shock is important, but addressing the uterine atony through massage takes precedence to prevent further hemorrhage.

3. A client who has had three spontaneous abortions is requesting information about possible causes. The nurse's response should be based on which information?

• A. Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions
• B. Incompetent cervix can cause spontaneous abortions
• C. An infection can cause spontaneous abortions
• D. Nutritional deficiencies are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions. Spontaneous abortions, also known as miscarriages, often occur due to chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. These abnormalities are a common cause of early pregnancy loss. Choice B is incorrect because an incompetent cervix typically leads to late miscarriages, not early spontaneous abortions. Choice C is incorrect as while infections can be a cause of spontaneous abortions, they are not the most common cause. Choice D is incorrect as nutritional deficiencies are not the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions.

4. A client who is bleeding after a vaginal delivery receives a prescription for methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.4 mg IM every 2 hours, not to exceed 5 doses. The medication is available in ampules containing 0.2 mg/ml. What is the maximum dosage in mg that the nurse should administer to this client?

• A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
• B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
• C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
• D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The maximum dosage the nurse should administer is 2 mg. This is calculated based on the prescription of 0.4 mg IM every 2 hours, not to exceed 5 doses. Since the medication is available in ampules containing 0.2 mg/ml, the nurse should administer 2 ml (0.2 mg/ml x 10 ml) for each dose, not exceeding 5 doses. Therefore, the nurse should limit the client's oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml, to avoid exceeding the maximum dosage of 2 mg.

5. While teaching a group of adults about health promotion activities, a nurse identifies a behavior that poses the most significant risk factor for the development of skin cancer. Which behavior should the nurse address?

• A. Consuming a high-fat diet
• B. Using tanning beds
• C. Smoking cigarettes
• D. Drinking alcohol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using tanning beds is the most significant risk factor for developing skin cancer. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation from tanning beds damages the skin and increases the risk of skin cancer. Consuming a high-fat diet, smoking cigarettes, and drinking alcohol are unhealthy behaviors but are not directly linked to the development of skin cancer like UV exposure from tanning beds.

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