Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock?

• A. Risk for imbalanced body temperature
• B. Excess fluid volume
• C. Fatigue
• D. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. This diagnosis indicates that the client is not receiving adequate oxygenated blood to tissues, putting vital organs at risk. Addressing ineffective tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent organ damage and ensure the client's survival. The other options, such as 'Risk for imbalanced body temperature,' 'Excess fluid volume,' and 'Fatigue,' are important but secondary to the immediate threat of inadequate tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock.

2. A client is leaving the hospital against medical advice (AMA) and voluntarily signs the AMA form. Which nursing action is essential prior to the client leaving?

• A. Remove the client's peripheral IV access
• B. Administer requested pain relief medication
• C. Obtain the client's neurological vital signs
• D. Provide the client with the hospital's phone number

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Removing the client's peripheral IV access is essential before the client leaves against medical advice to prevent complications such as infection, thrombosis, or bleeding. Administering pain relief medication (choice B) can be important but not essential at this point. Obtaining neurological vital signs (choice C) is not specifically required before the client leaves. Providing the client with the hospital's phone number (choice D) may be helpful but is not as essential as ensuring the safe removal of IV access.

3. The nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Which intervention is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor serum calcium levels
• B. Obtain a baseline electrocardiogram
• C. Implement seizure precautions
• D. Encourage a low-protein diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to implement seizure precautions. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication used for seizure control. Seizure precautions are crucial for clients taking this medication to ensure their safety during a seizure episode. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Obtaining a baseline electrocardiogram (Choice B) is important for some medications but not the priority for a client on phenytoin. Encouraging a low-protein diet (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for clients on phenytoin and is not the most important intervention.

4. A child with Leukemia is admitted for chemotherapy, and the nursing diagnosis, altered nutrition, less than body requirements related to anorexia, nausea, vomiting is identified. Which intervention should the nurse include in this child's plan of care?

• A. Allow the child to eat foods desired and tolerated
• B. Restrict foods brought from fast food restaurants
• C. Recommend eating the same foods as siblings eat at home
• D. Encourage a variety of large portions of food at every meal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a child with Leukemia undergoing chemotherapy and experiencing altered nutrition, less than body requirements due to anorexia, nausea, and vomiting is to allow the child to eat foods desired and tolerated. This intervention helps improve the child's nutrition intake during chemotherapy. Choice B is incorrect because restricting foods may further limit the child's nutritional intake. Choice C is incorrect because recommending eating the same foods as siblings may not align with the child's preferences or needs during treatment. Choice D is incorrect as encouraging large portions of food at every meal may overwhelm the child and be counterproductive to their nutritional needs.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving treatment for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?

• A. Dry mucous membranes
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased skin turgor
• D. Elevated heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign indicating that the client is responding to the treatment for dehydration. It suggests that the client's kidneys are functioning better, helping to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration, not improvement. Decreased skin turgor (Choice C) and elevated heart rate (Choice D) are also symptoms of dehydration and do not indicate a positive response to treatment.

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