Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock?

• A. Risk for imbalanced body temperature
• B. Excess fluid volume
• C. Fatigue
• D. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. This diagnosis indicates that the client is not receiving adequate oxygenated blood to tissues, putting vital organs at risk. Addressing ineffective tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent organ damage and ensure the client's survival. The other options, such as 'Risk for imbalanced body temperature,' 'Excess fluid volume,' and 'Fatigue,' are important but secondary to the immediate threat of inadequate tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock.

2. A nurse is assessing the learning needs of a client who is diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching?

• A. I should take my medications daily to replace necessary hormones
• B. I need to eat a diet high in protein and carbohydrates
• C. I should avoid drinking fluids with caffeine
• D. I should notify my healthcare provider if I start feeling dizzy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A diet high in protein and carbohydrates is not specifically required for Addison's disease. The focus should be on maintaining a balanced diet that is rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and adequate protein sources. Choice A is correct as adherence to medication therapy is crucial in managing Addison's disease. Choice C is correct as caffeine can exacerbate symptoms of Addison's disease. Choice D is correct as dizziness can be a sign of adrenal crisis in Addison's disease, and prompt notification of healthcare providers is essential.

3. A college student who is diagnosed with a vaginal infection and vulva irritation describes the vaginal discharge as having a 'cottage cheese' appearance. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?

• A. Cleanse the perineum with warm soapy water 3 times per day
• B. Instill the first dose of nystatin (Mycostatin) vaginally per applicator
• C. Perform a glucose measurement using a capillary blood sample
• D. Obtain a blood specimen for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instill the first dose of nystatin vaginally per applicator. Nystatin is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections, which are characterized by 'cottage cheese' discharge. Cleansing the perineum with warm soapy water may help with hygiene but does not address the underlying infection. Performing a glucose measurement is not relevant to the diagnosis of a vaginal infection. Obtaining a blood specimen for STDs is not the priority in this scenario as the symptoms described are indicative of a yeast infection.

4. A client with cirrhosis is taking lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding indicates that the lactulose is having the desired effect?

• A. Two to three soft bowel movements per day
• B. Increased serum ammonia levels
• C. Decreased white blood cell count
• D. Soft, formed stool twice a day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two to three soft bowel movements per day.' Lactulose is prescribed to produce soft, regular bowel movements to reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis. This helps in preventing hepatic encephalopathy. Option B is incorrect because increased serum ammonia levels would indicate that lactulose is not effectively reducing ammonia levels. Option C is incorrect because lactulose does not directly affect white blood cell counts. Option D is incorrect because soft, formed stools twice a day may not be frequent enough to effectively reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis.

5. The nurse is caring for a laboring 22-year-old primigravida following administration of regional anesthesia. In planning care for this client, what nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach
• B. Teaching the client how to push effectively to decrease the length of the second stage of labor
• C. Timing and recording uterine contractions
• D. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention for a laboring client following administration of regional anesthesia is to ensure safety by raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach. This is crucial to prevent falls and to ensure that the client can call for assistance if needed. Teaching the client how to push effectively (Choice B) is important but not the highest priority at this moment. Timing and recording uterine contractions (Choice C) are essential but not as immediate as ensuring safety post-anesthesia. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia (Choice D) is important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence in this situation.

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