HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet
1. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock?
- A. Risk for imbalanced body temperature
- B. Excess fluid volume
- C. Fatigue
- D. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. This diagnosis indicates that the client is not receiving adequate oxygenated blood to tissues, putting vital organs at risk. Addressing ineffective tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent organ damage and ensure the client's survival. The other options, such as 'Risk for imbalanced body temperature,' 'Excess fluid volume,' and 'Fatigue,' are important but secondary to the immediate threat of inadequate tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock.
2. The mother of a 6-year-old anemic boy is taught by the nurse to give iron supplements. Which statement indicates that the mother understands the proper administration of iron?
- A. The iron tablets will be absorbed between meals, on an empty stomach
- B. I should give the iron tablets with his milk and cereal each morning
- C. Iron preparations can be taken with antibiotics if he develops an infection
- D. The iron tablets may cause him to sunburn more easily so he should wear sunscreen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because iron supplements are best absorbed on an empty stomach, which maximizes their effectiveness. Giving iron tablets with milk or calcium-rich foods, as mentioned in choice B, should be avoided as they can decrease iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect because iron preparations should not be taken with antibiotics due to potential interactions. Choice D is also incorrect as iron tablets do not cause an increased risk of sunburn, so sunscreen is not necessary specifically due to iron supplementation.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with a new colostomy. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Change the ostomy appliance daily
- B. Empty the ostomy pouch when it is one-third full
- C. Rinse the ostomy pouch with warm water
- D. Apply a skin barrier to the peristomal skin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the client's teaching plan is to empty the ostomy pouch when it is one-third full. This practice helps prevent leakage and skin irritation by maintaining an appropriate pouching system. Changing the ostomy appliance daily (Choice A) is not necessary unless leakage or other issues occur. Rinsing the ostomy pouch with warm water (Choice C) is not a recommended practice as it may cause damage to the pouch. Applying a skin barrier to the peristomal skin (Choice D) is important but not the most crucial instruction in this scenario.
4. Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client's right leg?
- A. Dorsiflexes the right foot and left on command
- B. A 3 by 5 cm ecchymosis area covering the right calf
- C. Right calf is 3 cm larger in circumference than the left
- D. Bilateral lower extremity has 3+ pitting edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant increase in the circumference of the right calf compared to the left calf is a classic sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Option A is incorrect as dorsiflexing the right foot and left on command does not specifically indicate DVT. Option B describes an ecchymosis area which is more indicative of a bruise rather than DVT. Option D suggests bilateral lower extremity edema, which is not specific to DVT and can be seen in various conditions such as heart failure or renal issues.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling dizzy and has a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly
- B. Provide 15 grams of carbohydrate
- C. Check the client's blood pressure
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing 15 grams of carbohydrate is the initial action to treat hypoglycemia. When a client with diabetes mellitus experiences symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as dizziness and with a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl, the immediate priority is to raise their blood sugar levels quickly. Administering carbohydrates, such as fruit juice or glucose tablets, is the recommended first step to reverse hypoglycemia. Administering glucagon intramuscularly is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Checking the client's blood pressure is important but not the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after the immediate management of hypoglycemia.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access