which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock
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HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet

1. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. This diagnosis indicates that the client is not receiving adequate oxygenated blood to tissues, putting vital organs at risk. Addressing ineffective tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent organ damage and ensure the client's survival. The other options, such as 'Risk for imbalanced body temperature,' 'Excess fluid volume,' and 'Fatigue,' are important but secondary to the immediate threat of inadequate tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min and a heart rate of 110 beats/min. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to assess the client's oxygen saturation level. In a client with COPD and abnormal respiratory and heart rates, determining the oxygen saturation helps evaluate the adequacy of oxygen exchange and the severity of respiratory distress. Administering a bronchodilator (choice A) can be appropriate but assessing oxygen saturation takes priority. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing (choice B) may not address the immediate need for oxygenation assessment. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (choice D) is important but typically follows the initial assessment of oxygen saturation.

3. At a community health fair, a 50-year-old woman tells the nurse that she has an annual physical exam that includes a clinical breast exam and an annual mammogram. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Monthly breast self-exams are essential for early detection of breast cancer. While annual clinical breast exams and mammograms are important, monthly self-exams enhance early detection by helping women become familiar with their breasts and notice any changes. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the importance of self-exams. Choice C is incorrect as it prematurely commends without ensuring the woman is conducting self-exams. Choice D is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about the frequency of mammograms needed.

4. The nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 75 ml/hour to a client who had a bowel resection 4 days ago. Which laboratory finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A serum calcium level of 7.8 mg/dL requires immediate intervention due to the risk of hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to serious complications such as tetany, seizures, and cardiac arrhythmias. The other laboratory findings are within normal limits or slightly elevated, which do not pose an immediate threat to the client's health in this scenario.

5. A client who has a flaccid bladder is placed on a bladder training program. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform the Crede maneuver. The Crede maneuver is a technique used to manage a flaccid bladder by applying manual pressure over the bladder area to assist in the expulsion of urine. This technique helps promote bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because using manual pressure to express urine is not a standardized technique and may cause harm. Choice C is incorrect as applying an external urinary drainage device does not address the need for bladder training. Choice D is unrelated to bladder training for a flaccid bladder.

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