Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock?

• A. Risk for imbalanced body temperature
• B. Excess fluid volume
• C. Fatigue
• D. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. This diagnosis indicates that the client is not receiving adequate oxygenated blood to tissues, putting vital organs at risk. Addressing ineffective tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent organ damage and ensure the client's survival. The other options, such as 'Risk for imbalanced body temperature,' 'Excess fluid volume,' and 'Fatigue,' are important but secondary to the immediate threat of inadequate tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock.

2. A 9-year-old boy with tetralogy of Fallot is being discharged following a cardiac catheterization. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide the parents?

• A. Do not allow the child to return to school for at least one month
• B. Notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site
• C. Monitor the child's temperature and report any elevation
• D. Observe for any changes in the child's color or energy level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site. Drainage at the site can be a sign of infection, which needs prompt evaluation and treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as crucial as identifying and reporting any drainage, which is more directly related to potential complications post-cardiac catheterization.

3. A client with a C-6 spinal injury changes to a breathing pattern of shallow respirations and dyspnea twelve hours after the causative incident. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider and implement which intervention?

• A. Place the client in reverse Trendelenburg position
• B. Prepare for intubation with an endotracheal tube
• C. Administer a pain medication to the client
• D. Instruct the client on deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a C-6 spinal injury exhibiting shallow respirations and dyspnea, these signs could indicate respiratory compromise and potential respiratory failure. Intubation with an endotracheal tube may be necessary to secure the airway and support adequate oxygenation. Placing the client in reverse Trendelenburg position, administering pain medication, or instructing on deep breathing exercises would not directly address the urgency of the respiratory distress in this situation, making them incorrect choices.

4. At a community health fair, a 50-year-old woman tells the nurse that she has an annual physical exam that includes a clinical breast exam and an annual mammogram. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Encourage the woman to explore her fears about breast cancer.
• B. Ask the woman if she also performs monthly breast self-exams.
• C. Commend the woman for adhering to the recommended cancer detection guidelines.
• D. Advise the woman that mammograms are only needed every two years at her age.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Monthly breast self-exams are essential for early detection of breast cancer. While annual clinical breast exams and mammograms are important, monthly self-exams enhance early detection by helping women become familiar with their breasts and notice any changes. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the importance of self-exams. Choice C is incorrect as it prematurely commends without ensuring the woman is conducting self-exams. Choice D is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about the frequency of mammograms needed.

5. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client's B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Measure the client's oxygen saturation before taking further action
• B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
• C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
• D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose of furosemide is appropriate when a client with heart failure has an elevated BNP level. BNP elevation indicates fluid overload, and furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing excess fluid. Measuring the client's oxygen saturation (Choice A) is not directly related to addressing fluid overload. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not indicated for managing elevated BNP levels. Holding the furosemide dose (Choice D) would delay appropriate treatment for fluid overload.

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