which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock
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HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet

1. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. This diagnosis indicates that the client is not receiving adequate oxygenated blood to tissues, putting vital organs at risk. Addressing ineffective tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent organ damage and ensure the client's survival. The other options, such as 'Risk for imbalanced body temperature,' 'Excess fluid volume,' and 'Fatigue,' are important but secondary to the immediate threat of inadequate tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client with a nasogastric tube. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action when administering medications to a client with a nasogastric tube is to check for tube placement. This is crucial to ensure that the medications are delivered to the correct location within the gastrointestinal tract. Checking the tube placement helps prevent complications such as medication entering the lungs if the tube is misplaced. Crushing the medications (choice B) or flushing the tube with water (choice C) should only be done after confirming the correct tube placement. Administering the medications (choice D) without verifying the tube placement can lead to serious consequences.

3. The nurse is assessing on the first postoperative day following thyroid surgery. Which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring calcium levels is crucial post-thyroid surgery to detect hypocalcemia, a common complication due to injury or removal of the parathyroid glands. Monitoring sodium, chloride, or potassium levels is not as vital in the immediate post-thyroid surgery period.

4. A client who has a flaccid bladder is placed on a bladder training program. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform the Crede maneuver. The Crede maneuver is a technique used to manage a flaccid bladder by applying manual pressure over the bladder area to assist in the expulsion of urine. This technique helps promote bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because using manual pressure to express urine is not a standardized technique and may cause harm. Choice C is incorrect as applying an external urinary drainage device does not address the need for bladder training. Choice D is unrelated to bladder training for a flaccid bladder.

5. A client with a C-6 spinal injury changes to a breathing pattern of shallow respirations and dyspnea twelve hours after the causative incident. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider and implement which intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a C-6 spinal injury exhibiting shallow respirations and dyspnea, these signs could indicate respiratory compromise and potential respiratory failure. Intubation with an endotracheal tube may be necessary to secure the airway and support adequate oxygenation. Placing the client in reverse Trendelenburg position, administering pain medication, or instructing on deep breathing exercises would not directly address the urgency of the respiratory distress in this situation, making them incorrect choices.

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