Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock?

• A. Risk for imbalanced body temperature
• B. Excess fluid volume
• C. Fatigue
• D. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. This diagnosis indicates that the client is not receiving adequate oxygenated blood to tissues, putting vital organs at risk. Addressing ineffective tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent organ damage and ensure the client's survival. The other options, such as 'Risk for imbalanced body temperature,' 'Excess fluid volume,' and 'Fatigue,' are important but secondary to the immediate threat of inadequate tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock.

2. The nurse working in an emergency center collects physical evidence 6 hours following a reported sexual assault. After placing the samples in sealed containers, which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Maintain possession of the evidence collection kit at all times until submitted to law enforcement
• B. Provide discharge instructions for prophylactic antibiotics, pregnancy, and HIV prevention medication
• C. Document the characteristics of the various sites of sample collection
• D. Assist the client with toileting, hygiene, and dressing with clean clothes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Maintaining possession of the evidence collection kit at all times until submitted to law enforcement is crucial to ensure the integrity of the chain of custody. This step helps prevent tampering or contamination of the evidence, which is vital for the legal process. Providing discharge instructions for medications, documenting sample characteristics, and assisting the client with personal care are important aspects of care but not the immediate priority when handling forensic evidence in a sexual assault case.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer the 0800 dose of 20 units of Humulin R to an 8-year-old girl diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes. The mother comments that her daughter is a very picky eater and many times does not eat meals. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer the 20 Units of Humulin R subcutaneously as prescribed
• B. Ask the girl if she will be eating her breakfast this morning
• C. Discuss changing the insulin prescription to Lispro with the healthcare provider
• D. Explain to the mother the importance of eating the scheduled meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the girl if she will be eating her breakfast this morning. This is important to determine if the child will be consuming food, which is crucial information before administering insulin. If the child does not plan to eat, administering the full dose of insulin may lead to hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as administering the insulin without knowing if the child will eat can be dangerous. Choice C is not the first intervention because the immediate concern is the child's meal intake. Choice D, while important, is not the first step in this situation.

4. While assessing a client who is experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, the nurse observes periods of apnea. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Elevate the head of the client's bed
• B. Auscultate the client's breath sounds
• C. Measure the length of the apneic periods
• D. Suction the client's oropharynx

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse observes periods of apnea in a client experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, measuring the length of the apneic periods is essential. This action helps in determining the severity of Cheyne-Stokes respirations by providing valuable information about the duration of interrupted breathing cycles. Elevating the head of the client's bed (Choice A) may be beneficial in some respiratory conditions but is not the priority in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Auscultating the client's breath sounds (Choice B) is a general assessment and may not directly address the issue of apnea in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Suctioning the client's oropharynx (Choice D) is not the initial intervention for managing Cheyne-Stokes respirations unless secretions are obstructing the airway.

5. Which client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesaemia?

• A. A young adult client with intractable vomiting due to food poisoning
• B. A client who developed hyperparathyroidism in late adolescence
• C. A middle-aged male client in renal failure following an unsuccessful kidney transplant
• D. A female client who excessively consumes simple carbohydrates

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients in renal failure are at high risk for hypomagnesemia due to their impaired kidney function. Renal failure can lead to decreased excretion of magnesium, resulting in its buildup in the body and potential hypomagnesemia. This client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly associated with renal failure and its impact on magnesium levels. Intractable vomiting, hyperparathyroidism, and excessive consumption of simple carbohydrates may have other health implications but are not as strongly linked to hypomagnesemia as renal failure.

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