which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet

1. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. This diagnosis indicates that the client is not receiving adequate oxygenated blood to tissues, putting vital organs at risk. Addressing ineffective tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent organ damage and ensure the client's survival. The other options, such as 'Risk for imbalanced body temperature,' 'Excess fluid volume,' and 'Fatigue,' are important but secondary to the immediate threat of inadequate tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate. This will help raise the blood glucose levels quickly. Administering a glucagon injection (Choice B) is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Providing a snack with protein (Choice C) is not the first-line treatment for hypoglycemia as protein takes longer to raise blood glucose levels. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice D) may be beneficial after administering the carbohydrate, but the priority is to raise the blood glucose levels promptly.

3. A client with cirrhosis is taking lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding indicates that the lactulose is having the desired effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two to three soft bowel movements per day.' Lactulose is prescribed to produce soft, regular bowel movements to reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis. This helps in preventing hepatic encephalopathy. Option B is incorrect because increased serum ammonia levels would indicate that lactulose is not effectively reducing ammonia levels. Option C is incorrect because lactulose does not directly affect white blood cell counts. Option D is incorrect because soft, formed stools twice a day may not be frequent enough to effectively reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis.

4. When caring for a laboring client whose contractions are occurring every 2-3 minutes, the nurse should document that the pump is infusing how many ml/hour?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct calculation for infusion based on the given data is 5 ml/hr. To calculate the infusion rate per hour, you need to determine the number of contractions per hour. If contractions are occurring every 2-3 minutes, this would mean approximately 20-30 contractions per hour. Therefore, if the pump is infusing 5 ml per contraction, the total infusion rate per hour would be 5 ml x 20 contractions = 100 ml/hr. This makes choice A the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given data.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is the laboratory value that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. PTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is specifically sensitive to heparin's anticoagulant effects. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation without increasing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important laboratory values in other contexts, they are not specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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