Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 4 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Decrease the oxygen flow rate
• B. Increase the oxygen flow rate
• C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
• D. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to decrease the oxygen flow rate. Clients with COPD are sensitive to high levels of oxygen and can develop oxygen toxicity, leading to symptoms like lethargy and confusion. Decreasing the oxygen flow rate helps prevent this complication. Increasing the oxygen flow rate would worsen the client's condition. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing may not address the immediate issue of oxygen toxicity. While monitoring the client's oxygen saturation level is important, taking action to address the oxygen toxicity by decreasing the flow rate is the priority in this situation.

2. A 9-year-old received a short arm cast for a right radius. To relieve itching under the child's cast, which instructions should the nurse provide to the parents?

• A. Blow cool air from a hair dryer under the cast
• B. Twist the cast back and forth
• C. Shake powder into the cast
• D. Push a pencil under the cast edge

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Blow cool air from a hairdryer under the cast.' Blowing cool air can help relieve itching without damaging the cast or causing injury. Choice B, twisting the cast back and forth, can lead to discomfort, skin irritation, or even injury. Choice C, shaking powder into the cast, can create a mess, increase the risk of skin issues, and interfere with proper healing. Choice D, pushing a pencil under the cast edge, is dangerous as it can cause injury to the child's skin or the underlying tissues. Therefore, the safest and most effective option to relieve itching under the cast is to blow cool air from a hair dryer.

3. A client with cirrhosis is taking lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding indicates that the lactulose is having the desired effect?

• A. Two to three soft bowel movements per day
• B. Increased serum ammonia levels
• C. Decreased white blood cell count
• D. Soft, formed stool twice a day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two to three soft bowel movements per day.' Lactulose is prescribed to produce soft, regular bowel movements to reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis. This helps in preventing hepatic encephalopathy. Option B is incorrect because increased serum ammonia levels would indicate that lactulose is not effectively reducing ammonia levels. Option C is incorrect because lactulose does not directly affect white blood cell counts. Option D is incorrect because soft, formed stools twice a day may not be frequent enough to effectively reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis.

4. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

5. The nurse is performing a physical assessment of a client with a history of smoking and notes a barrel chest. Which action is most important for the nurse to take next?

• A. Assess the client's oxygen saturation level
• B. Teach the client pursed-lip breathing techniques
• C. Determine the client's history of lung disease
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas sample

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation level is crucial when a nurse identifies a barrel chest. A barrel chest is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which can lead to impaired gas exchange and decreased oxygen saturation. Monitoring the oxygen saturation level will provide immediate information on the client's respiratory status. Teaching pursed-lip breathing techniques, determining lung disease history, and obtaining arterial blood gas samples are important interventions but assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence in this scenario due to its direct impact on the client's respiratory function.

Similar Questions