Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 4 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Decrease the oxygen flow rate
• B. Increase the oxygen flow rate
• C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
• D. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to decrease the oxygen flow rate. Clients with COPD are sensitive to high levels of oxygen and can develop oxygen toxicity, leading to symptoms like lethargy and confusion. Decreasing the oxygen flow rate helps prevent this complication. Increasing the oxygen flow rate would worsen the client's condition. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing may not address the immediate issue of oxygen toxicity. While monitoring the client's oxygen saturation level is important, taking action to address the oxygen toxicity by decreasing the flow rate is the priority in this situation.

2. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter in a female client. Which action should the nurse take to maintain sterile technique?

• A. Apply sterile gloves before inserting the catheter
• B. Use sterile gloves to insert the catheter
• C. Clean the urinary meatus with an antiseptic solution
• D. Place the drainage bag above the level of the bladder

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using sterile gloves to insert the catheter is crucial to maintaining sterile technique. Sterile gloves help prevent the introduction of microorganisms during the insertion process. Applying sterile gloves before cleansing the perineal area (Choice A) is important but not specific to maintaining sterility during catheter insertion. Cleaning the urinary meatus with an antiseptic solution (Choice C) is a step in the catheterization process but does not solely ensure sterile technique. Placing the drainage bag above the level of the bladder (Choice D) is incorrect; the bag should be placed below the level of the bladder to facilitate urine drainage.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is the laboratory value that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. PTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is specifically sensitive to heparin's anticoagulant effects. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation without increasing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important laboratory values in other contexts, they are not specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. It dissolves blood clots
• B. It prevents the blood from clotting
• C. It thins the blood
• D. It decreases the risk of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

5. A client with a history of seizures is being discharged with a prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin). Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Take the medication with meals
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
• C. Limit sodium intake
• D. Take the medication at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to advise the client to avoid alcohol while taking phenytoin. Alcohol can interact with phenytoin, making it less effective and leading to increased side effects. Taking the medication with meals (Choice A) may help reduce gastrointestinal upset but is not the most crucial instruction for this medication. Limiting sodium intake (Choice C) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice D) is not a standard instruction for phenytoin administration.

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