Nursing Elites

1. A client is being educated about the use of sertraline (Zoloft) for depression. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should take the medication with a high-protein meal.
• B. I may experience dizziness when getting up quickly.
• C. I might notice a decrease in my sex drive.
• D. I should report any thoughts of self-harm to my healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement 'I should take the medication with a high-protein meal' indicates a need for further teaching as sertraline (Zoloft) should not be taken with a high-protein meal due to potential interference with medication absorption. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements associated with the use of sertraline for depression. It is common to experience dizziness when quickly getting up, notice a decrease in sex drive, and important to report any thoughts of self-harm to the healthcare provider while on this medication.

2. Colcrys (colchicine) is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of gout. The nurse reviews the client's medical history in the health record, knowing that the medication would be contraindicated in which disorder?

• A. Myxedema
• B. Renal failure
• C. Hypothyroidism
• D. Diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Colchicine is contraindicated in clients with severe gastrointestinal, renal, hepatic, or cardiac disorders, or blood dyscrasias. Renal failure is a condition where the kidneys fail to function adequately, leading to the accumulation of toxins in the body. Since colchicine is contraindicated in clients with renal disorders, including renal failure, it could exacerbate the condition and worsen the client's health. Myxedema, hypothyroidism, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for colchicine use. While these conditions may require caution or monitoring when administering colchicine, they are not absolute contraindications like renal failure.

3. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

4. A client with chronic pain is prescribed transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patches. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
• B. Avoid using heating pads over the patch.
• C. Change the patch every 72 hours.
• D. Remove the old patch before applying the new one.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients using transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patches should avoid using heating pads over the patch as heat can increase the release of the medication, potentially leading to overdose. The patch should be applied to a different site each time, changed every 72 hours, and the old patch should be removed before applying a new one to prevent accidental overdose or excessive drug absorption.

5. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
• D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.

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