a histamine h2 receptor antagonist will be prescribed for a client the nurse understands that which medications are h2 receptor antagonists select one
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Pharmacology HESI Quizlet

1. A histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist will be prescribed for a client. The nurse understands that which medications are H2-receptor antagonists? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: H2-receptor antagonists like Nizatidine, Ranitidine, and Famotidine are used to suppress gastric acid secretion, relieve heartburn symptoms, and prevent complications of peptic ulcer disease. Ibuprofen, on the other hand, is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for pain relief and inflammation, but it is not an H2-receptor antagonist. It is essential to differentiate between these medication classes to ensure appropriate treatment for gastrointestinal conditions.

2. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.

3. The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tiotropium (Spiriva) is not a rescue inhaler but a maintenance medication for COPD. The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan is to advise the client to rinse their mouth after using the inhaler. This practice helps prevent dry mouth and throat irritation, common side effects of tiotropium. There are no specific recommendations to take tiotropium on an empty stomach or with a full glass of water.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate (Feosol). The nurse monitors the client for which common side effect associated with this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplements such as ferrous sulfate. Iron can cause constipation by slowing down the movement of the digestive system and hardening the stool. Patients should be advised to increase their fluid intake, dietary fiber, and physical activity to help alleviate this side effect. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect associated with ferrous sulfate. Weakness (Choice B) and headache (Choice C) are not typically linked to this medication.

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