Nursing Elites

1. A histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist will be prescribed for a client. The nurse understands that which medications are H2-receptor antagonists? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Nizatidine (Axid)
• B. Ranitidine (Zantac)
• C. Famotidine (Pepcid)
• D. Ibuprofen (Motrin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: H2-receptor antagonists like Nizatidine, Ranitidine, and Famotidine are used to suppress gastric acid secretion, relieve heartburn symptoms, and prevent complications of peptic ulcer disease. Ibuprofen, on the other hand, is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for pain relief and inflammation, but it is not an H2-receptor antagonist. It is essential to differentiate between these medication classes to ensure appropriate treatment for gastrointestinal conditions.

2. When a client taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) is prescribed ciprofloxacin (Cipro), the nurse should closely monitor the client for which potential effect of this drug interaction?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased warfarin effectiveness
• C. Increased risk of thrombosis
• D. Decreased ciprofloxacin effectiveness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is given with warfarin sodium (Coumadin), it can potentiate the effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's INR levels and watch for signs of bleeding such as bruising, petechiae, or black tarry stools.

3. The clinic nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client. The nurse notes that the client is taking azelaic acid (Azelex). Because of the medication prescription, the nurse would suspect that the client is being treated for:

• A. Acne
• B. Eczema
• C. Hair loss
• D. Herpes simplex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Azelaic acid (Azelex) is a topical medication used to treat mild to moderate acne. It works by suppressing the growth of Propionibacterium acnes and decreasing the proliferation of keratinocytes in the skin. Therefore, if a client is prescribed azelaic acid, the nurse would suspect that the client is being treated for acne.

4. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate (Feosol). The nurse monitors the client for which common side effect associated with this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Weakness
• C. Headache
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplements such as ferrous sulfate. Iron can cause constipation by slowing down the movement of the digestive system and hardening the stool. Patients should be advised to increase their fluid intake, dietary fiber, and physical activity to help alleviate this side effect. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect associated with ferrous sulfate. Weakness (Choice B) and headache (Choice C) are not typically linked to this medication.

5. A client is prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for chronic gout. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Increase your intake of purine-rich foods.
• C. Stop taking the medication if you experience a gout attack.
• D. Take the medication with or without food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for chronic gout is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This helps prevent kidney stones which can be a side effect of the medication. It is important for the client to avoid purine-rich foods to help manage gout symptoms. They should continue taking the medication even during a gout attack as prescribed by the healthcare provider. Allopurinol can be taken with or without food, so there is no need to take it on an empty stomach. Therefore, option A is the correct choice. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as increasing purine-rich foods is not recommended, stopping the medication during a gout attack is not advised, and allopurinol can be taken with or without food.

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