Nursing Elites

1. A client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) daily has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. A healthcare provider prescribes a digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. A nurse checks the results, knowing that which of the following is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin?

• A. 3 to 5 ng/mL
• B. 0.5 to 2 ng/mL
• C. 1.2 to 2.8 ng/mL
• D. 3.5 to 5.5 ng/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The therapeutic serum level for digoxin ranges from 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. This range is considered optimal for therapeutic effects while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Levels above 2 ng/mL may lead to digoxin toxicity, which can manifest as anorexia among other symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in monitoring the digoxin levels to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of the medication.

2. A client is being taught about the use of enoxaparin (Lovenox) for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Inject the medication subcutaneously.
• B. Avoid massaging the injection site after administration.
• C. Administer the medication at the same time each day.
• D. Do not expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is administered subcutaneously at the same time each day to maintain consistent blood levels. Injecting the medication into the muscle is incorrect, as it should be given subcutaneously. Massaging the injection site should be avoided to prevent bruising. The air bubble in the prefilled syringe should not be expelled, as it ensures the full dose is administered.

3. A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken on a frequent daily basis for relief of generalized discomfort. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which of the following indicates toxicity associated with the medication?

• A. Sodium of 140 mEq/L
• B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
• C. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
• D. A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL indicates liver damage, which can be caused by an overdose of acetaminophen. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver injury, manifesting as elevated bilirubin levels and other liver function test abnormalities.

4. Heparin sodium is prescribed for the client. The nurse expects that the healthcare provider will prescribe which of the following to monitor for a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. Hematocrit level
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that heparin sodium is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels assess red blood cell concentrations and are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin sodium, which affects the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, not heparin.

5. Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. A nurse reviews the client's medical record and would question the prescription if which of the following is noted in the client's history?

• A. Neuralgia
• B. Insomnia
• C. Use of nitroglycerin
• D. Use of multivitamins

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effect of nitric oxide and is contraindicated with the concurrent use of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Using nitroglycerin together with Viagra can lead to severe hypotension and cardiovascular collapse, making it unsafe to combine both medications.

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