HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI
1. A client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) daily has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. A healthcare provider prescribes a digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. A nurse checks the results, knowing that which of the following is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin?
- A. 3 to 5 ng/mL
- B. 0.5 to 2 ng/mL
- C. 1.2 to 2.8 ng/mL
- D. 3.5 to 5.5 ng/mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The therapeutic serum level for digoxin ranges from 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. This range is considered optimal for therapeutic effects while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Levels above 2 ng/mL may lead to digoxin toxicity, which can manifest as anorexia among other symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in monitoring the digoxin levels to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of the medication.
2. The client has a new prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan). On review of the chart, the nurse identifies that this medication can be safely administered with which condition?
- A. Intestinal obstruction
- B. Peptic ulcer with melena
- C. Diverticulitis with perforation
- D. Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Metoclopramide, also known as Reglan, is commonly used to manage vomiting following cancer chemotherapy. It acts as a gastrointestinal stimulant and antiemetic, aiding in relieving nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Metoclopramide should be avoided in conditions like intestinal obstruction, peptic ulcer with melena, and diverticulitis with perforation due to its prokinetic properties that can worsen these conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy.
3. The nurse provides medication instructions to an older hypertensive client who is taking 20 mg of lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) orally daily. The nurse evaluates the need for further teaching when the client states which of the following?
- A. I can skip a dose once a week.
- B. I need to change my position slowly.
- C. I take the pill after breakfast each day.
- D. If I get a bad headache, I should call my doctor immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lisinopril should be taken daily as prescribed and not skipped. Skipping doses can lead to ineffective treatment.
4. A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken on a frequent daily basis for relief of generalized discomfort. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which of the following indicates toxicity associated with the medication?
- A. Sodium of 140 mEq/L
- B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
- C. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
- D. A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL indicates liver damage, which can be caused by an overdose of acetaminophen. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver injury, manifesting as elevated bilirubin levels and other liver function test abnormalities.
5. A client has a prescription for albuterol (Proventil HFA) (two puffs) and beclomethasone dipropionate (Qvar) (nasal inhalation, two puffs) by metered-dose inhaler. The medications are to be administered by the nurse by giving the:
- A. Albuterol first and then the beclomethasone dipropionate
- B. Beclomethasone dipropionate first and then the albuterol
- C. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the albuterol
- D. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the beclomethasone dipropionate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Albuterol, as a bronchodilator, should be administered first to help open up the airways, followed by beclomethasone dipropionate to reduce inflammation in the airways. This sequence ensures optimal therapeutic effects of the medications.
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