Nursing Elites

1. A client with a peptic ulcer is diagnosed with a Helicobacter pylori infection. The nurse is reinforcing teaching for the client about the medications prescribed, including clarithromycin (Biaxin), esomeprazole (Nexium), and amoxicillin (Amoxil). Which statement by the client indicates the best understanding of the medication regimen?

• A. My ulcer will heal because these medications will kill the bacteria.
• B. These medications are only taken when I have pain from my ulcer.
• C. The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production.
• D. These medications will coat the ulcer and decrease the acid production in my stomach.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection usually includes two antibacterial drugs and a proton pump inhibitor. These medications will kill the bacteria and decrease acid production.

2. A client has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix), and the nurse is monitoring for adverse effects associated with this medication. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a potential adverse effect? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Nausea
• B. Tinnitus
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to adverse effects such as tinnitus, hypotension, and hypokalemia. While nausea is a common side effect of many medications, it is not typically associated with furosemide. Therefore, the nurse should recognize nausea as a potential adverse effect that doesn't apply to furosemide.

3. A healthcare provider notes that a client is receiving lamivudine (Epivir). The healthcare provider determines that this medication has been prescribed to treat which of the following?

• A. Pancreatitis
• B. Pharyngitis
• C. Tonic-clonic seizures
• D. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lamivudine, known by the brand name Epivir, is an antiretroviral medication used in the treatment of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. This medication helps to inhibit the replication of HIV and improve the immune system function in individuals with HIV. Therefore, the correct answer is option D, Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.

4. Insulin glargine (Lantus) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse tells the client that it is best to take the insulin:

• A. 1 hour after each meal
• B. Once daily, at the same time each day
• C. 15 minutes before breakfast, lunch, and dinner
• D. Before each meal, based on the blood glucose level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting insulin with a duration of action of approximately 24 hours, making it suitable for once-daily dosing at the same time each day. This regimen helps maintain consistent blood glucose levels and simplifies the client's treatment routine. Taking insulin glargine once daily provides basal insulin coverage throughout the day, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia compared to short-acting insulins that are taken before each meal.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Report a pulse rate less than 60 beats per minute.
• C. Take the medications in the morning.
• D. Weigh yourself daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to report a pulse rate less than 60 beats per minute, as it could indicate digoxin toxicity. Consuming potassium-rich foods is encouraged due to the potential for furosemide (Lasix) to cause hypokalemia. The medications should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Weighing oneself daily is important to monitor for fluid retention, a crucial aspect in managing heart failure. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific teaching point related to digoxin and its potential toxicity.

Similar Questions