Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has diabetes and is overweight. The client tells the nurse that she wants to start an exercise program. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Determine the client's usual pattern of activity.
• B. Assist the client in developing a healthy eating plan.
• C. Encourage the client to join a support group.
• D. Provide the client with a list of signs and symptoms to report to the provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the client's usual pattern of activity is crucial as it helps the nurse understand the client's current level of physical activity, any limitations, and areas needing improvement. This information is essential to create a safe and effective exercise plan tailored to the client's specific needs. Choice B, assisting the client in developing a healthy eating plan, is important but not the first step when the client's immediate goal is to start an exercise program. Encouraging the client to join a support group may be beneficial for motivation and emotional support but is not the priority at this stage. Providing a list of signs and symptoms to report to the provider is important for client education but is not the initial step when the client expresses a desire to begin an exercise program.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

• A. A heart rate of 72 beats per minute
• B. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
• C. The client reports black, tarry stools
• D. The client reports nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease. This finding suggests active bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, requiring immediate attention. A normal heart rate of 72 beats per minute (choice A) is within the expected range. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL (choice B) is also within normal limits. Nausea and vomiting (choice D) are common symptoms associated with peptic ulcer disease but may not necessarily indicate active bleeding like black, tarry stools.

3. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?

• A. FHT 168 beats/min
• B. Temperature 100 degrees Fahrenheit
• C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm
• D. BP 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.

4. During an assessment on a client in congestive heart failure, what is most likely to be revealed upon auscultation of the heart?

• A. S3 ventricular gallop
• B. Apical click
• C. Systolic murmur
• D. Split S2

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: S3 ventricular gallop. An S3 sound is a common finding in congestive heart failure due to fluid overload in the heart. It is associated with decreased ventricular compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. A systolic murmur may be heard in conditions like mitral regurgitation but is not specific to congestive heart failure. A split S2 is associated with conditions like pulmonary hypertension, not congestive heart failure.

5. Which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia?

• A. Assessing the client's level of consciousness
• B. Monitoring the client's oxygen saturation
• C. Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking
• D. Monitoring the client's intake and output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking is the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia can occur when food, liquids, or saliva are inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation or infection. Checking the gag reflex helps prevent the aspiration of substances into the lungs. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but not as immediately critical as checking the gag reflex. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice B) is essential for respiratory assessment but does not directly prevent aspiration. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important for overall client management but does not specifically address the risk of aspiration pneumonia.

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