HESI RN TEST BANK

Nutrition HESI Practice Exam

A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy. What medication should the nurse have available in the event of an overdose of heparin?

    A. Protamine

    B. Amicar

    C. Imferon

    D. Diltiazem

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Protamine is the antidote for heparin overdose. It works by neutralizing the anticoagulant effects of heparin. Amicar (Choice B) is used to treat excessive bleeding due to elevated fibrinolytic activity and is not the antidote for heparin overdose. Imferon (Choice C) is an iron supplement and is not indicated for heparin overdose. Diltiazem (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension and angina, not for heparin overdose. Therefore, the correct choice is Protamine (Choice A).

A middle-aged woman talks to the nurse in the healthcare provider's office about uterine fibroids, also called leiomyomas or myomas. What statement by the woman indicates more education is needed?

  • A. I am one of every 4 women that get fibroids, and among women my age - between the 30s or 40s, fibroids occur more frequently.
  • B. My fibroids are noncancerous tumors that grow slowly.
  • C. The associated problems I have had are pelvic pressure and pain, urinary incontinence, frequent urination, urine retention, and constipation.
  • D. Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out.

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because fibroids that are asymptomatic usually do not require treatment or removal. The statement 'Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out' indicates a need for further education. Choice A correctly states the frequency of fibroids in women and their age group. Choice B accurately describes fibroids as noncancerous slow-growing tumors. Choice C lists common symptoms associated with uterine fibroids.

The nurse is caring for a 7-year-old with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN). Findings include moderate edema and oliguria. Serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine are elevated. What dietary modifications are most appropriate?

  • A. Decreased carbohydrates and fat
  • B. Decreased sodium and potassium
  • C. Increased potassium and protein
  • D. Increased sodium and fluids

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased sodium and potassium.' In acute glomerulonephritis, managing edema and oliguria is crucial. Reducing sodium and potassium intake helps achieve this by decreasing fluid retention and workload on the kidneys. Choice A, 'Decreased carbohydrates and fat,' is not directly related to managing AGN. Choice C, 'Increased potassium and protein,' is incorrect as increasing potassium can be harmful in kidney conditions. Choice D, 'Increased sodium and fluids,' is also incorrect as it can exacerbate edema and hypertension in AGN.

A nurse is assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility. Which client is at highest risk for the development of decubitus ulcers?

  • A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
  • B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
  • C. A client who had 3 episodes of incontinent diarrhea
  • D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A malnourished client on bed rest is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to a combination of factors such as poor nutritional status and immobility. Malnourished individuals have compromised skin integrity, making them more susceptible to pressure ulcers. Being on bed rest further exacerbates this risk as constant pressure on bony prominences can lead to tissue damage. Although the other choices may also be at risk for developing decubitus ulcers, the malnourished client on bed rest presents the highest risk due to the combination of malnutrition and immobility.

An 86-year-old nursing home resident who has decreased mental status is hospitalized with pneumonic infiltrates in the right lower lobe. When the nurse assists the client with a clear liquid diet, the client begins to cough. What should the nurse do next?

  • A. Add a thickening agent to the fluids
  • B. Check the client's gag reflex
  • C. Feed the client only solid foods
  • D. Increase the rate of intravenous fluids

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex is crucial in this situation as coughing while consuming liquids can indicate a risk of aspiration. Assessing the gag reflex can help determine if the client is safe to swallow without inhaling fluids into the lungs, which could lead to further respiratory complications. Adding a thickening agent may not address the underlying issue of aspiration risk. Feeding the client only solid foods is not appropriate without assessing the swallowing safety first. Increasing the rate of intravenous fluids does not directly address the client's difficulty with liquid intake.

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