Nursing Elites

1. A client in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease is very anxious and frequently asks about her deceased parents. Which intervention should the nurse implement to reduce the client’s anxiety?

• A. Remind the client that her parents have passed away
• B. Ask the client about her favorite memories with her parents
• C. Engage the client in an activity to distract her from thinking about her parents
• D. Reorient the client to the present reality and surroundings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Engaging the client in an activity to distract her from thinking about her deceased parents is the most appropriate intervention to reduce anxiety. This approach helps shift the focus away from distressing thoughts and can provide comfort and a sense of calm to the client.

2. The client, who is newly diagnosed with arteriosclerosis and is obese, is being educated by the nurse on reducing the risk of a heart attack or stroke. Which health promotion brochure should the nurse provide to this client?

• A. Monitoring Your Blood Pressure at Home
• B. Smoking Cessation as a Lifelong Commitment
• C. Decreasing Cholesterol Levels Through Diet
• D. Stress Management for a Healthier You

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most significant risk factor contributing to arteriosclerosis is excess dietary fat, particularly saturated fat and cholesterol. Therefore, the most crucial brochure for the nurse to provide to the client focuses on decreasing cholesterol levels through diet to help reduce the risk of heart attack or stroke.

3. A client with a suspected kidney infection is admitted to the hospital for observation. Which action should the nurse implement to assess the client’s kidney function?

• A. Monitor the client’s urine output
• B. Check for abdominal tenderness
• C. Evaluate the client’s fluid intake
• D. Inspect the client’s skin for edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring urine output is the most direct way to assess kidney function as it provides crucial information about the kidneys’ ability to filter waste and produce urine. Changes in urine output can indicate potential issues with kidney function, such as decreased filtration or impaired excretion of waste products.

4. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

5. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

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