Nursing Elites

1. When making the bed of a client who needs a bed cradle, which action should the nurse include?

• A. Teach the client to call for help before getting out of bed.
• B. Keep both the upper and lower side rails in a raised position.
• C. Keep the bed in the lowest position while changing the sheets.
• D. Drape the top sheet and covers loosely over the bed cradle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A bed cradle is used to keep the top bedclothes off the client, so the nurse should drape the top sheet and covers loosely over the cradle. This helps in maintaining the proper positioning and function of the bed cradle to ensure the client's comfort and safety during bed making.

2. The client with cholecystitis is being instructed on dietary choices. Which meal best meets the dietary needs of this client?

• A. Steak, baked beans, and a salad
• B. Broiled fish, green beans, and an apple
• C. Pork chops, macaroni and cheese, and grapes
• D. Avocado salad, milk, and angel food cake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cholecystitis requires a low-fat diet to reduce stress on the gallbladder. The meal of broiled fish, green beans, and an apple aligns with this dietary recommendation by providing lean protein and low-fat, high-fiber foods that are easier for the body to digest, making it the most suitable choice for a client with cholecystitis.

3. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is admitted with chest pain. Which laboratory test should the nurse expect to be ordered to determine if the client is experiencing another MI?

• A. Troponin
• B. Myoglobin
• C. CK-MB
• D. C-reactive protein

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Troponin is the most specific and sensitive laboratory test for detecting myocardial infarction (MI). It is released when there is damage to the heart muscle, making it a valuable marker for diagnosing another MI. Myoglobin and CK-MB can also be elevated in MI, but troponin is preferred due to its higher specificity. C-reactive protein is a marker of inflammation and not specific to MI.

4. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

5. The client has received a new diagnosis of heart failure, and the nurse is providing dietary management education. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
• B. Avoid foods high in sodium.
• C. Limit fluid intake to 1.5 liters per day.
• D. Increase intake of foods high in vitamin K.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Avoiding foods high in sodium (choice B) is essential for clients with heart failure to prevent fluid retention and decrease the strain on the heart. High sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup, exacerbating heart failure symptoms. Increasing potassium intake (choice A) can be harmful in heart failure if not monitored closely as it can affect heart rhythm. Limiting fluid intake (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but the specific amount should be individualized based on the client's condition. Increasing vitamin K intake (choice D) is not a primary concern in heart failure management and is more relevant for clients on anticoagulants to manage blood clotting.

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