HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. Prior to Mr. Landon undergoing a tracheostomy, what is the top nursing priority?
- A. Shaving the neck.
- B. Establishing a means of communication.
- C. Inserting a Foley catheter.
- D. Starting an IV.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before Mr. Landon undergoes a tracheostomy, the top nursing priority is to establish a means of communication. This is essential to ensure that Mr. Landon can effectively communicate his needs during and after the procedure. Shaving the neck (Choice A) may be necessary for the tracheostomy but is not the top priority. Inserting a Foley catheter (Choice C) and starting an IV (Choice D) are important nursing interventions but are not the priority before a tracheostomy procedure, where communication is key for patient safety and comfort.
2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who is experiencing fluid volume deficit (dehydration). Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy?
- A. Monitor daily weights
- B. Assess skin turgor
- C. Evaluate blood pressure trends
- D. Check urine specific gravity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring daily weights is an accurate method to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy because changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance. Fluid volume deficit can be objectively evaluated by monitoring daily weights as it provides a more precise measurement of fluid status over time. Assessing skin turgor (choice B) is subjective and may not provide as accurate or measurable data as monitoring daily weights. Evaluating blood pressure trends (choice C) can give information about circulatory status but may not directly reflect fluid volume status. Checking urine specific gravity (choice D) can indicate the concentration of urine but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid balance like monitoring daily weights does.
3. After surgery, a patient has decreased cardiac output. What is a likely observation by the nurse?
- A. Decreased urine output
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Flushing of the skin
- D. Hyperventilation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in cardiac output can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, resulting in decreased urine output. The kidneys rely on adequate blood supply to filter waste and produce urine. Therefore, a decreased urine output is a common observation when cardiac output is reduced. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output; flushing of the skin is more related to vasodilation, and hyperventilation is not directly linked to decreased cardiac output.
4. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Give analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule for pain management.
- B. Administer analgesic medication only when the pain becomes severe.
- C. Provide medication to keep the client comfortable without inducing sedation.
- D. Allow brief medication-free periods to promote comfort during daily activities.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most effective pain management strategy in hospice care involves administering analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule (A) to maintain pain control. Waiting until pain is severe before administering medication (B) is not ideal as it may lead to inadequate pain relief. While providing comfort is crucial in hospice care, sedation that prevents the client from interacting and experiencing their remaining time should be minimized. Therefore, keeping the client comfortable without excessive sedation (C) is preferred. Allowing for some periods without medication (D) may be appropriate but should not compromise the client's comfort and pain control.
5. A client with a diagnosis of renal failure is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. The client's blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg.
- B. The client gains 1 kg in 24 hours.
- C. The client's potassium level is 5.5 mEq/L.
- D. The client's weight decreases by 0.5 kg in 24 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (C) is elevated and concerning in a client with renal failure receiving hemodialysis, as it can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring blood pressure (A), weight gain (B), and weight loss (D) are essential in clients on hemodialysis, but an elevated potassium level poses an immediate risk that requires prompt intervention.
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