a nurse cares for a middle aged female client with diabetes mellitus who is being treated for the third episode of acute pyelonephritis in the past ye
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HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz

1. A middle-aged female client with diabetes mellitus is being treated for the third episode of acute pyelonephritis in the past year. The client asks, 'What can I do to help prevent these infections?' How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with long-standing diabetes mellitus are at risk for pyelonephritis due to various reasons. Elevated blood glucose levels in diabetes can lead to glucose spilling into the urine, altering the pH and creating a conducive environment for bacterial growth. Neuropathy associated with diabetes can reduce bladder tone and diminish the sensation of bladder fullness, resulting in less frequent voiding and increased risk of stasis and bacterial overgrowth. Increasing fluid intake, particularly water, and voiding regularly can help prevent stasis and microbial overgrowth. Testing urine for ketones and proteins or using tampons instead of sanitary napkins are not effective strategies for preventing pyelonephritis. Keeping the hemoglobin A1c levels below 9% is crucial for managing diabetes, but it alone does not directly prevent pyelonephritis.

2. A client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) has cool and pale feet with diminished pulses. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In peripheral arterial disease (PAD), there is decreased blood flow to the extremities. Applying warm compresses helps dilate blood vessels, improve circulation, and relieve symptoms. Elevating the legs above the heart level may further compromise blood flow. Encouraging daily exercise is important in PAD management but may not be appropriate when the client has cool, pale feet with diminished pulses. Applying ice packs can worsen vasoconstriction and further reduce blood flow, exacerbating symptoms in PAD.

3. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.

4. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 mL/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion site of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Converting the IV to a saline lock and continuing to monitor the site is the correct action in this scenario. When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site without redness or edema, it may indicate phlebitis or irritation. Replacing the IV may not be necessary if there are no signs of infection or infiltration. Determining the IV medications administered or consulting with the healthcare provider to start a new IV are not immediate actions required for pain management at the insertion site. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to convert the IV to a saline lock and closely observe for any changes or complications.

5. The nurse is preparing to give a dose of a cephalosporin medication to a patient who has been receiving the antibiotic for 2 weeks. The nurse notes ulcers on the patient’s tongue and buccal mucosa. Which action will the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should report a possible superinfection side effect of the cephalosporin to the physician as the patient's symptoms may indicate a superinfection that requires treatment. Holding the drug is not necessary unless directed by the provider. Culturing the lesions is not indicated for this situation. There is no evidence to suggest impending anaphylaxis based on the patient's symptoms.

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