HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client has pyelonephritis and expresses embarrassment about discussing symptoms. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Assure the client that their symptoms will be kept confidential.
- B. Acknowledge the client's discomfort and avoid discussing elimination topics.
- C. Encourage the use of familiar language and assure the client they can take their time.
- D. Offer the client a nurse of the same gender to provide care.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client expresses embarrassment or discomfort in discussing symptoms related to sensitive topics like elimination and the genitourinary area, the nurse should respond by encouraging the client to use words they are comfortable with. This helps the client feel more at ease and opens up communication. Offering a nurse of the same gender may not address the client's discomfort with discussing symptoms. Assuring confidentiality is important, but it should not be promised in a way that may not be fulfilled. Avoiding the topic of elimination entirely does not address the client's feelings or promote effective communication.
2. The nurse notes that the only ECG for a 55-year-old male client scheduled for surgery in two hours is dated two years ago. The client reports that he has a history of 'heart trouble,' but has no problems at present. Hospital protocol requires that those over 50 years of age have a recent ECG prior to surgery. What nursing action is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Ask the client to explain what he means by 'heart trouble.'
- B. Call for an ECG to be performed immediately.
- C. Notify surgery that the ECG is over two years old.
- D. Notify the client's surgeon immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is 55 years old with a history of 'heart trouble,' which necessitates a recent ECG before surgery as per hospital policy. The nurse should prioritize patient safety and adhere to the protocol by arranging for an ECG to be performed immediately. Option A is not the best initial action as the focus should be on obtaining the necessary test first. Option C is not the immediate action required, and option D is premature without obtaining the necessary ECG first.
3. The nurse is monitoring a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. The nurse should report which of the following findings immediately?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Weight gain of 2 lbs (0.9 kg) since the last treatment.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Pulse rate of 72 bpm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weight gain of 2 lbs (0.9 kg) since the last treatment is concerning in a client undergoing hemodialysis with chronic renal failure as it may indicate fluid overload. This finding requires immediate reporting and intervention to prevent complications such as fluid retention, pulmonary edema, or exacerbation of heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are not findings that require immediate attention in this context. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal finding during hemodialysis, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is within a normal range for many clients, and a pulse rate of 72 bpm is also within the expected range for most individuals.
4. Four hours following surgical repair of a compound fracture of the right ulna, the nurse is unable to palpate the client's right radial pulse. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding immediately.
- B. Complete a neurovascular assessment of the right hand.
- C. Elevate the client's right hand on one or two pillows.
- D. Measure the client's blood pressure and apical pulse rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Completing a neurovascular assessment of the right hand is the priority in this situation. This assessment will help determine the circulation, sensation, and movement of the affected limb, ensuring there are no complications like compartment syndrome or impaired perfusion. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice A) might be necessary but should come after assessing the client's neurovascular status. Elevating the client's right hand (Choice C) can be helpful in some cases but should not precede a neurovascular assessment. Measuring the client's blood pressure and apical pulse rate (Choice D) is important but not the priority when assessing a potential vascular compromise in the limb.
5. A client has made an appointment for her annual Papanicolaou test (a.k.a. Pap smear). The nurse who schedules the appointment should tell the client that:
- A. The test cannot be performed while the client is menstruating
- B. Vaginal douching is required at least 24 hours before the test
- C. Spicy foods should not be eaten on the day of the test
- D. The test has absolutely no discomfort associated with it
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Pap smear cannot be performed with accurate results during menstruation. Menstrual blood may interfere with the test results. Choice B is incorrect as vaginal douching should be avoided for at least 24 hours before the test to prevent altering the cervical cells. Choice C is incorrect as there is no restriction on spicy foods before a Pap smear. Choice D is incorrect as some women may experience mild discomfort during the test, although it is generally well-tolerated.
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