Nursing Elites

1. A client has pyelonephritis and expresses embarrassment about discussing symptoms. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Assure the client that their symptoms will be kept confidential.
• B. Acknowledge the client's discomfort and avoid discussing elimination topics.
• C. Encourage the use of familiar language and assure the client they can take their time.
• D. Offer the client a nurse of the same gender to provide care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client expresses embarrassment or discomfort in discussing symptoms related to sensitive topics like elimination and the genitourinary area, the nurse should respond by encouraging the client to use words they are comfortable with. This helps the client feel more at ease and opens up communication. Offering a nurse of the same gender may not address the client's discomfort with discussing symptoms. Assuring confidentiality is important, but it should not be promised in a way that may not be fulfilled. Avoiding the topic of elimination entirely does not address the client's feelings or promote effective communication.

2. A nurse plans care for clients with urinary incontinence. Which client is correctly paired with the appropriate intervention?

• A. A 29-year-old client after a difficult vaginal delivery – Habit training
• B. A 58-year-old postmenopausal client who is not taking estrogen therapy – Electrical stimulation
• C. A 64-year-old female with Alzheimer’s-type senile dementia – Bladder training
• D. A 77-year-old female who has difficulty ambulating – Exercise therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct pairing is a 58-year-old postmenopausal client who is not taking estrogen therapy with electrical stimulation. Electrical stimulation is used for clients with stress incontinence related to menopause and low estrogen levels. Exercise therapy improves pelvic wall strength and is not specifically for ambulation issues. Habit training is more effective for cognitively impaired clients, like those with Alzheimer's-type senile dementia. Bladder training requires the client to be alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate, which may not be suitable for clients with cognitive impairments.

3. The client is being educated by the healthcare provider about risk factors associated with atherosclerosis and methods to reduce the risk. Which of the following is a risk factor that the client cannot modify?

• A. Diabetes
• B. Age
• C. Exercise level
• D. Dietary preferences

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis because it is a natural part of the aging process. While lifestyle factors such as diabetes, exercise level, and dietary preferences can be modified to reduce the risk of atherosclerosis, age cannot be altered. Therefore, age is the correct answer. Diabetes, exercise level, and dietary preferences can all be improved or managed through interventions and lifestyle changes to mitigate the risk of atherosclerosis.

4. A client with overflow incontinence needs assistance with elimination. What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Stroke the medial aspect of the thigh.
• B. Use intermittent catheterization.
• C. Provide digital anal stimulation.
• D. Use the Valsalva maneuver.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is impaired. The Valsalva maneuver, which involves holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate, can help initiate voiding by applying mechanical pressure. Options A and C (stroking the thigh or anal stimulation) rely on an intact reflex arc to trigger elimination and are not effective for clients with overflow incontinence. Intermittent catheterization (Option B) is a last resort due to the high risk of infection and should only be considered if other interventions fail.

5. The healthcare professional is preparing to give a dose of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) and learns that the patient takes warfarin (Coumadin). The healthcare professional will request an order for

• A. a decreased dose of TMP-SMX.
• B. a different antibiotic.
• C. an increased dose of warfarin.
• D. coagulation studies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sulfonamides, like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin (Coumadin). To monitor the patient's response and prevent adverse effects, the healthcare professional should request coagulation studies, such as International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels. Choosing a decreased dose of TMP-SMX would not address the potential drug interaction between TMP-SMX and warfarin. Opting for a different antibiotic is not necessary if the interaction can be managed by monitoring. Increasing the dose of warfarin without monitoring could lead to excessive anticoagulation and adverse events, so it's not the appropriate action in this scenario.

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