HESI RN
HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam
1. A mother brings her 2-year-old son to the clinic because he has been crying and pulling on his earlobe for the past 12 hours. The child’s oral temperature is 101.2°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Ask the mother if the child has had a runny nose
- B. Cleanse purulent exudate from the affected ear canal
- C. Apply a topical antibiotic to the periauricle area
- D. Provide parent education to prevent recurrence
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a child with ear pain and fever, asking about a runny nose is important to assess if the ear pain is associated with a respiratory infection, such as otitis media. This information can guide further assessment and treatment decisions. Choice B is incorrect because cleansing purulent exudate should be done by a healthcare provider, not the nurse. Choice C is incorrect as topical antibiotics should only be applied under healthcare provider's orders. Choice D is not the priority at this moment, as the immediate concern is assessing the association between the ear pain and a possible respiratory infection.
2. When preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP), which action by the nurse is most important?
- A. Administering a sedative
- B. Encouraging fluid intake
- C. Administering an oral preparation of radiopaque dye
- D. Questioning the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse when preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP) is to question the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish. Some IVP dyes contain iodine, and if the client is allergic to iodine or shellfish, they may experience severe allergic reactions such as itching, hives, rash, throat tightness, difficulty breathing, or bronchospasm. Administering a sedative (Choice A) may be needed for relaxation during the procedure, encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) is generally beneficial but not the most crucial for IVP preparation, and administering radiopaque dye (Choice C) should only be done after confirming the client's safety regarding allergies to iodine or shellfish.
3. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. White blood cell count.
- B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
- C. Platelet count.
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. These are the primary laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in treating anemia. White blood cell count (A), platelet count (C), and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (D) are not directly related to the effects of this medication. Epoetin alfa stimulates the production of red blood cells, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps assess the response to the treatment.
4. A 35-year-old female client has just been admitted to the post-anesthesia recovery unit following a partial thyroidectomy. Which statement reflects the nurse's accurate understanding of the expected outcome for the client following this surgery?
- A. Supplemental hormonal therapy will probably be unnecessary.
- B. The thyroid will regenerate to a normal size within a few years.
- C. The client will be restricted from eating seafood.
- D. The remainder of the thyroid will be removed at a later date.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a partial thyroidectomy, the client may be advised to avoid eating seafood due to its high iodine content, which can affect the thyroid function. Choice A is incorrect because after a partial thyroidectomy, supplemental hormonal therapy may be necessary. Choice B is incorrect as the thyroid does not regenerate after a partial thyroidectomy. Choice D is incorrect; the remaining portion of the thyroid is not typically removed at a later date unless there are specific medical reasons to do so.
5. A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?
- A. 1875 mg
- B. 625 mg
- C. 2000 mg
- D. 1500 mg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the dose for each administration, multiply the child's weight (25 kg) by the dose (300 mg/kg/24 hours) and divide by the number of doses per day (6, as doses are every 4 hours). This gives us (25 kg * 300 mg/kg / 24 hours) / 6 doses = 1875 mg. Therefore, the nurse should administer 1875 mg for each dose. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the correct calculation based on the weight and prescribed dose. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not derived from the correct dosage calculation. Choice D, 1500 mg, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate dosage calculation based on the weight of the child and the prescribed dose.