Nursing Elites

1. A mother brings her 2-year-old son to the clinic because he has been crying and pulling on his earlobe for the past 12 hours. The child’s oral temperature is 101.2°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Ask the mother if the child has had a runny nose
• B. Cleanse purulent exudate from the affected ear canal
• C. Apply a topical antibiotic to the periauricle area
• D. Provide parent education to prevent recurrence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with ear pain and fever, asking about a runny nose is important to assess if the ear pain is associated with a respiratory infection, such as otitis media. This information can guide further assessment and treatment decisions. Choice B is incorrect because cleansing purulent exudate should be done by a healthcare provider, not the nurse. Choice C is incorrect as topical antibiotics should only be applied under healthcare provider's orders. Choice D is not the priority at this moment, as the immediate concern is assessing the association between the ear pain and a possible respiratory infection.

2. When observing a distraught mother scolding her 3-year-old son for wetting his pants in the hallway of a pediatric unit, what initial action should the nurse take?

• A. Suggest that the mother consult a pediatric nephrologist.
• B. Provide disposable training pants while calming the mother.
• C. Refer the mother to a community parent education program.
• D. Inform the mother that toilet training is slower for boys.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse's initial action should be to provide disposable training pants to manage the immediate issue of wetting while also calming the mother. This approach addresses the current distressing situation and offers a practical solution to alleviate the mother's concerns.

3. The child is 3 years old and is 2 hours postop from a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery. Which assessment finding indicates arterial obstruction?

• A. Blood pressure is decreasing, and the pulse is rapid and irregular.
• B. The right foot feels cool to the touch and appears pale and blanched.
• C. The pulse distal to the femoral artery is weaker in the left foot than the right foot.
• D. The pressure dressing at the right femoral area is damp and oozing blood.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A cool, pale, and blanched foot is indicative of arterial obstruction, leading to poor blood flow. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Monitoring for signs of arterial compromise, such as color changes, temperature, and capillary refill, is crucial in detecting and managing vascular complications post-cardiac catheterization. Choices A, C, and D do not directly indicate arterial obstruction. While a decreasing blood pressure and rapid, irregular pulse may suggest compromise, these findings are more nonspecific. A weaker pulse distal to the femoral artery indicates reduced perfusion but not necessarily arterial obstruction. Finally, a damp, oozing pressure dressing suggests a dressing issue rather than arterial obstruction.

4. What information should a nurse discuss with the mother of a 2-year-old girl who is drinking sweetened soda from her bottle?

• A. Encouraging 2-word phrases in speech development for a 2-year-old
• B. Explaining the association between drinking soda and dental caries
• C. Discussing the link between drinking soda and childhood obesity
• D. Emphasizing the importance of toddlers sleeping 10 hours a night

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is explaining the association between drinking soda and dental caries. Soda consumption can lead to tooth decay and cavities, so it is crucial to educate the mother about this to prevent dental issues in the child.

5. What is the priority intervention for a 16-year-old client with a history of depression who is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of acetaminophen?

• A. Administer activated charcoal
• B. Place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring
• C. Prepare for gastric lavage
• D. Administer N-acetylcysteine as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client who has taken an acetaminophen overdose is to administer N-acetylcysteine promptly. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and helps prevent liver damage. Activated charcoal may be used in certain cases, but N-acetylcysteine takes precedence as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen. Continuous cardiac monitoring and gastric lavage are not the priority interventions for acetaminophen overdose. Administering N-acetylcysteine is crucial to prevent liver damage and address the overdose, making it the most urgent action in this scenario.

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