Nursing Elites

1. A mother brings her 2-year-old son to the clinic because he has been crying and pulling on his earlobe for the past 12 hours. The child’s oral temperature is 101.2°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Ask the mother if the child has had a runny nose
• B. Cleanse purulent exudate from the affected ear canal
• C. Apply a topical antibiotic to the periauricle area
• D. Provide parent education to prevent recurrence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with ear pain and fever, asking about a runny nose is important to assess if the ear pain is associated with a respiratory infection, such as otitis media. This information can guide further assessment and treatment decisions. Choice B is incorrect because cleansing purulent exudate should be done by a healthcare provider, not the nurse. Choice C is incorrect as topical antibiotics should only be applied under healthcare provider's orders. Choice D is not the priority at this moment, as the immediate concern is assessing the association between the ear pain and a possible respiratory infection.

2. The mother of a 14-year-old who had a below-the-knee amputation for osteosarcoma tells the nurse that her child is angry and blaming her for allowing the amputation to occur. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. I will ask the HCP for a psychiatric consult for your child
• B. This type of acting out behavior is normal for adolescents
• C. It is important to focus on your child's needs at this difficult time
• D. A reaction of anger is your child's attempt to cope with this loss

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acknowledging the child's anger as a coping mechanism helps validate their feelings and can open a dialogue for further support.

3. The mother calls the clinic and tells the practical nurse (PN) that her child cannot swallow a prescribed tablet that was dispensed by the local pharmacy as a whole tablet. How should the PN respond?

• A. You can crush the tablet and mix it with food.
• B. You should not force the child to swallow the tablets by holding her nose closed.
• C. If a liquid form is available, the pharmacist can be contacted for a prescription change.
• D. Do not advise the child to chew the tablet if she cannot swallow it.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a child is unable to swallow a tablet, the appropriate response is to consider if a liquid form of the medication is available. This is a safer and more effective alternative than forcing the child to swallow or chew the tablet. Contacting the pharmacist for a prescription change can provide a suitable solution that ensures the child receives the medication in a more manageable form. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because crushing the tablet and mixing it with food may alter the medication's effectiveness or taste, forcing the child to swallow or holding her nose closed can be distressing and ineffective, and advising the child to chew the tablet is not recommended as an alternative to swallowing it.

4. A child with pertussis is receiving azithromycin (Zithromax Injection) IV. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the child’s plan of care?

• A. Obtain vital signs to monitor for fluid overload
• B. Change IV site dressing every 3 days and as needed
• C. Monitor for signs of facial swelling or urticaria
• D. Assess for abdominal pain and vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring for signs of an allergic reaction, such as facial swelling or urticaria, is crucial when administering antibiotics like azithromycin. It is important to watch for these signs to promptly identify and manage any potential adverse reactions during the course of treatment.

5. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the child’s insulin dose
• B. Review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique
• C. Discuss the possibility of switching to oral hypoglycemics
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in three months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

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