HESI RN
Pediatric HESI
1. The nurse is assessing a 4-month-old infant who has just received routine immunizations. The mother reports that the baby has been fussy and has a low-grade fever since the immunizations. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. These are common side effects and should resolve within a few days
- B. Your baby may be having an allergic reaction to the immunizations
- C. You should bring your baby to the clinic immediately for evaluation
- D. You should give your baby aspirin to help with the fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response by the nurse is to reassure the mother that fussiness and low-grade fever are common side effects of immunizations in infants and should resolve within a few days. It is essential to educate the mother about these expected reactions to alleviate her concerns. Choice B is incorrect because allergic reactions to immunizations usually present with more severe symptoms such as difficulty breathing or swelling. Choice C is not warranted unless there are concerning symptoms present. Choice D is inappropriate as aspirin is contraindicated in infants due to the risk of Reye's syndrome.
2. A 2-year-old child with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is being treated in the hospital. What should the healthcare provider monitor for in this child?
- A. Increased urine output.
- B. Decreased respiratory rate.
- C. Labored breathing.
- D. Improved appetite.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Labored breathing is a critical sign of worsening respiratory distress in children with RSV. It indicates that the child's condition may be deteriorating, requiring prompt intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring for labored breathing allows healthcare providers to promptly assess and manage the child's respiratory status, potentially preventing further complications associated with RSV infection.
3. A 6-year-old child with a history of asthma is brought to the clinic with complaints of wheezing and shortness of breath. The nurse notes that the child is using accessory muscles to breathe. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator
- B. Obtain a peak flow reading
- C. Apply oxygen
- D. Perform a complete respiratory assessment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the initial priority as it helps open the child's airways, reducing the wheezing and shortness of breath. This intervention aims to provide immediate relief and improve the child's respiratory distress. Obtaining a peak flow reading or applying oxygen may be necessary after administering the bronchodilator, but the priority is to address the acute symptoms of wheezing and shortness of breath first. Performing a complete respiratory assessment can be done after the immediate intervention of administering the bronchodilator to further evaluate the child's respiratory status.
4. In a 6-year-old child with asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and using accessory muscles to breathe with a peak flow reading in the red zone, what should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator
- B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
- C. Start the child on oxygen therapy
- D. Contact the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for a 6-year-old child with asthma who is experiencing difficulty breathing, using accessory muscles to breathe, and has a peak flow reading in the red zone is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator first. Nebulized bronchodilators work rapidly to open up the airways, providing immediate relief and improving breathing. This intervention is crucial in addressing the acute respiratory distress the child is facing. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or contacting the healthcare provider can be considered after the initial administration of the bronchodilator, as they are not the primary interventions needed to manage the child's acute respiratory distress.
5. What information should the nurse provide to parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who inquire about the disease and future children?
- A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
- B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
- C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
- D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by mutations in the DMD gene on the X chromosome. This disorder primarily affects males because they have one X chromosome, inherited from their mothers, who may be carriers of the mutated gene. Females have two X chromosomes, providing a protective effect as the normal gene on one X chromosome can compensate for the mutated gene on the other. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which is why their son has the disease and why there is a risk of passing it on to future sons. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately implies that the lack of dystrophin in mothers impacts their sons' muscle groups. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a viral infection caused the muscle damage, which is not the case with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as it attributes the muscle weakness to birth trauma instead of the genetic nature of the disorder.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access