Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a 4-month-old infant who has just received routine immunizations. The mother reports that the baby has been fussy and has a low-grade fever since the immunizations. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. These are common side effects and should resolve within a few days
• B. Your baby may be having an allergic reaction to the immunizations
• C. You should bring your baby to the clinic immediately for evaluation
• D. You should give your baby aspirin to help with the fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response by the nurse is to reassure the mother that fussiness and low-grade fever are common side effects of immunizations in infants and should resolve within a few days. It is essential to educate the mother about these expected reactions to alleviate her concerns. Choice B is incorrect because allergic reactions to immunizations usually present with more severe symptoms such as difficulty breathing or swelling. Choice C is not warranted unless there are concerning symptoms present. Choice D is inappropriate as aspirin is contraindicated in infants due to the risk of Reye's syndrome.

2. Which assessment finding should the healthcare provider identify as most concerning in a child with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Gross hematuria.
• C. Proteinuria.
• D. Periorbital edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with acute glomerulonephritis, hypertension is the most concerning assessment finding as it can indicate worsening renal function. Hypertension is a common complication of glomerulonephritis and can lead to further kidney damage if not managed promptly. Monitoring and controlling blood pressure is crucial in these cases to prevent complications and preserve renal function. Gross hematuria, proteinuria, and periorbital edema are also common findings in acute glomerulonephritis but hypertension poses a higher risk for renal damage if left uncontrolled.

3. A mother brings her 3-month-old infant to the clinic, concerned about frequent vomiting after feeding. The practical nurse (PN) suspects gastroesophageal reflux (GER). Which recommendation should the PN provide to the mother?

• A. Feed the infant in a prone position.
• B. Provide larger, less frequent feedings.
• C. Keep the infant upright for 30 minutes after feeding.
• D. Offer only formula thickened with rice cereal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct recommendation for reducing symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux (GER) in infants is to keep the infant upright for 30 minutes after feeding. This position helps prevent the backflow of stomach contents, alleviating symptoms of reflux. Placing the infant in a prone position or providing larger, less frequent feedings may worsen symptoms by increasing the likelihood of regurgitation. Offering only formula thickened with rice cereal is not the first-line intervention for GER and should not be recommended initially.

4. A 3-year-old with HIV infection is staying with a foster family who is caring for 3 other foster children in their home. When one of the children acquires pertussis, the foster mother calls the clinic and asks the nurse what she should do. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Remove the child with HIV from the foster home.
• B. Report the exposure of the child with HIV to the health department.
• C. Place the child with HIV in reverse isolation.
• D. Review the immunization documentation of the child with HIV.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to review the immunization documentation of the child with HIV. This step ensures that the child has received the necessary vaccines to protect against pertussis and other preventable diseases. It is essential to verify the immunization status to provide appropriate care and prevent further transmission of infectious diseases within the foster home. Removing the child from the foster home (Choice A) may not be necessary if the child is adequately protected through immunization. Reporting the exposure to the health department (Choice B) is important but not the first action. Placing the child in reverse isolation (Choice C) is not indicated for pertussis exposure.

5. In a 6-year-old child with asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and using accessory muscles to breathe with a peak flow reading in the red zone, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator
• B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
• C. Start the child on oxygen therapy
• D. Contact the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a 6-year-old child with asthma who is experiencing difficulty breathing, using accessory muscles to breathe, and has a peak flow reading in the red zone is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator first. Nebulized bronchodilators work rapidly to open up the airways, providing immediate relief and improving breathing. This intervention is crucial in addressing the acute respiratory distress the child is facing. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or contacting the healthcare provider can be considered after the initial administration of the bronchodilator, as they are not the primary interventions needed to manage the child's acute respiratory distress.

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