HESI RN
Pediatric HESI
1. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist agent albuterol (Proventil). The child's mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son's airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Recommend that the mother bring the child in for immediate evaluation
- B. Advise the mother that overuse of the drug may cause chronic bronchitis
- C. Assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly
- D. Confirm that the medication helps to reduce airway inflammation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's priority is to reassure the mother that she is using albuterol correctly to open her son's airways during episodes of difficulty breathing. This reassurance helps build trust and ensures that the child receives the intended benefit of the medication. The answer choice recommending immediate evaluation (A) is not appropriate at this point as the mother is using the medication as prescribed. Advising about overuse causing chronic bronchitis (B) is incorrect and may cause unnecessary alarm. Confirming that the medication helps reduce airway inflammation (D) is not the best response because albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist used primarily for bronchodilation in acute asthma exacerbations, rather than for reducing inflammation.
2. The nurse is caring for a 14-year-old adolescent who was admitted to the hospital after a suicide attempt. The adolescent’s mood appears stable, and the healthcare provider has recommended discharge. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Ensure that a safety plan is in place before discharge
- B. Provide education about medication adherence
- C. Encourage the adolescent to participate in group therapy
- D. Schedule a follow-up appointment with a mental health professional
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to ensure that a safety plan is in place before discharge. A safety plan is essential to assist the adolescent in managing future crises and decreasing the likelihood of another suicide attempt. It provides guidance on coping strategies and resources to help the adolescent stay safe in times of distress.
3. A mother brings her 2-year-old son to the clinic because he has been crying and pulling on his earlobe for the past 12 hours. The child’s oral temperature is 101.2°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Ask the mother if the child has had a runny nose
- B. Cleanse purulent exudate from the affected ear canal
- C. Apply a topical antibiotic to the periauricle area
- D. Provide parent education to prevent recurrence
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a child with ear pain and fever, asking about a runny nose is important to assess if the ear pain is associated with a respiratory infection, such as otitis media. This information can guide further assessment and treatment decisions. Choice B is incorrect because cleansing purulent exudate should be done by a healthcare provider, not the nurse. Choice C is incorrect as topical antibiotics should only be applied under healthcare provider's orders. Choice D is not the priority at this moment, as the immediate concern is assessing the association between the ear pain and a possible respiratory infection.
4. Which nursing intervention is most important to include in the plan of care for a child with acute glomerulonephritis?
- A. Encourage fluid intake.
- B. Promote complete bed rest.
- C. Weigh the child daily.
- D. Administer vitamin supplements.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Weighing the child daily is crucial in managing a child with acute glomerulonephritis as it helps in monitoring fluid retention, which is a key concern in this condition. Daily weight monitoring allows healthcare providers to assess changes in fluid status and adjust treatment accordingly. It is an essential component of the care plan to ensure the child's health status is closely monitored during the management of acute glomerulonephritis. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice A) is generally beneficial but may not be the priority in this case where fluid retention needs close monitoring. Promoting complete bed rest (Choice B) can be important but may not be the most critical intervention. Administering vitamin supplements (Choice D) may not directly address the immediate concerns related to fluid retention in acute glomerulonephritis.
5. A 7-year-old is admitted to the hospital with persistent vomiting, and a nasogastric tube attached to low intermittent suction is applied. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours.
- B. Shift intake of 640 mL IV fluids plus 30 mL PO ice chips.
- C. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L.
- D. Serum pH of 7.45.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is significantly low and indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. The other findings are not as critical in this situation. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours may be expected in a patient with persistent vomiting. The shift intake of IV fluids and ice chips indicates fluid replacement, which is important but not as urgent as correcting electrolyte imbalances. A serum pH of 7.45 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.
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