HESI RN
HESI Pediatric Practice Exam
1. When planning care for a child diagnosed with rheumatic fever, what is the primary goal of nursing care?
- A. Reduce fever.
- B. Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance.
- C. Prevent cardiac damage.
- D. Maintain joint mobility and function.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary goal of nursing care for a child diagnosed with rheumatic fever is to prevent cardiac damage. Rheumatic fever can lead to complications affecting the heart, making it crucial to monitor and prevent cardiac involvement to avoid long-term consequences. While addressing fever and joint pain are important aspects of care, preventing cardiac damage takes precedence in managing rheumatic fever. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not the primary goals of nursing care in this case.
2. Discuss the anatomical/physiological changes in pregnancy under the following: Haematological system
- A. Blood volume and plasma volume increase, red blood cells increase, erythropoietin levels decrease, and leukocyte count increases.
- B. Blood volume and plasma volume decrease, and red blood cells decrease.
- C. No changes occur in the haematological system during pregnancy.
- D. Platelet count remains constant, and no change in coagulation factors.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During pregnancy, the haematological system undergoes changes to support the growing fetus. Blood volume and plasma volume increase to accommodate the needs of the developing baby. Red blood cells increase to support the increased oxygen demand. Contrary to the statement, erythropoietin levels actually increase to stimulate red blood cell production. Additionally, leukocyte count increases to help the mother's immune system cope with the changes during pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a decrease in blood components, which is not the case in pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect as there are significant changes in the haematological system during pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as platelet count can fluctuate during pregnancy, and there are changes in coagulation factors to prevent excessive bleeding.
3. The healthcare professional in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague’s assignment. Which action should the healthcare professional implement?
- A. Communicate the colleague’s actions to the unit charge nurse
- B. Send an email to facility administration reporting the action
- C. Write an anonymous complaint to a professional website
- D. Post a comment about the action on a staff discussion board
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Observing a colleague accessing a patient's EHR without a legitimate reason is a violation of HIPAA, which protects patient confidentiality. The appropriate action in this scenario is to communicate the colleague’s actions to the unit charge nurse immediately. The charge nurse can then address the issue internally and ensure that patient privacy is maintained. Reporting the incident through the appropriate channels within the healthcare facility is the most effective and professional way to handle such breaches of patient confidentiality. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve addressing the issue internally within the healthcare facility. Reporting such incidents internally is essential to ensure that patient privacy is protected, and the matter is handled appropriately by healthcare authorities.
4. The RN is admitting a male client who takes lithium carbonate (Eskalith) twice a day. Which information should the RN report to the HCP immediately?
- A. Short-term memory loss.
- B. Five-pound weight gain.
- C. Decreased affect.
- D. Nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are signs of potential lithium toxicity, which is a serious condition requiring immediate attention. These symptoms can indicate a dangerous level of lithium in the body that can lead to severe complications. Short-term memory loss (A), five-pound weight gain (B), and decreased affect (C) are important to monitor but are not as immediately concerning as symptoms of potential toxicity like nausea and vomiting.
5. A client was admitted for a myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock 2 days ago. Which laboratory test result should a nurse expect to find?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 52 mg/dL
- B. Creatinine of 2.3 mg/dL
- C. BUN of 10 mg/dL
- D. BUN/creatinine ratio of 8:1
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, decreased renal perfusion leads to an elevated BUN. Choice A is correct. Creatinine remains normal in cardiogenic shock as it signifies kidney damage, which has not occurred in this case. A low BUN indicates overhydration, malnutrition, or liver damage, which are not typically seen in cardiogenic shock. A low BUN/creatinine ratio is associated with fluid volume excess or acute renal tubular acidosis, not specifically indicative of cardiogenic shock.