Nursing Elites

1. A male veteran who recently returned from a war zone has post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is admitted to the psychiatric ward due to admitted suicidal ideation. On admission, the client’s family informed the healthcare provider that therapy sessions did not seem to be helping. Select only one intervention that has the highest priority.

• A. Administer paroxetine 40 mg as prescribed.
• B. Develop a list of therapy programs.
• C. Remove all shaving equipment.
• D. Determine if the client has a suicide plan.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The highest priority intervention in this scenario is to ensure the safety of the client who is admitted due to suicidal ideation. Removing all shaving equipment is crucial to prevent self-harm or suicide attempts using sharp objects. Administering medication or developing a list of therapy programs can be important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Determining if the client has a suicide plan is also essential but not as urgent as removing potential means for self-harm.

2. A male adolescent was admitted to the unit two days ago for depression. When the mental health nurse tries to interview the client to establish rapport, he becomes very irritated and sarcastic. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Offer to play a game of cards with the client.
• B. Report the behavior to the next shift.
• C. Document the behavior in the chart.
• D. Plan to talk with the client the next day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering to play a game of cards with the adolescent is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation. Engaging in an activity like playing a game can help establish rapport with the adolescent as it provides a more relaxed and non-threatening environment for communication. This approach can help the adolescent feel more comfortable and open up, as adolescents often find it easier to communicate when involved in an activity. Reporting the behavior to the next shift, documenting the behavior, or planning to talk with the client the next day do not directly address the immediate need to establish rapport and improve communication with the adolescent.

3. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
• B. Isolate the client from other clients.
• C. Administer a PRN sedative.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.

4. The RN is teaching a client about the initiation of the prescribed abstinence therapy using disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client acknowledge understanding?

• A. Completely abstain from heroin or cocaine use.
• B. Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose.
• C. Attend monthly meetings of Alcoholics Anonymous.
• D. Admit to others that he is a substance user.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose." It is essential for the client to understand the importance of abstaining from alcohol for at least 12 hours before starting disulfiram to prevent potential adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because disulfiram is specifically used to deter alcohol consumption, not heroin or cocaine use. Choice C is not directly related to the initiation of disulfiram therapy and attending AA meetings is not a requirement for taking disulfiram. Choice D is irrelevant and unnecessary for the initiation of disulfiram therapy.

5. A client is being treated for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse educate the client about?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Insomnia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Insomnia. Insomnia is a common side effect of SSRIs, including those used to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Educating the client about potential side effects like insomnia is crucial for managing expectations and promoting treatment adherence. Weight loss (choice A) is less common with SSRIs and might not be a primary concern for a client with GAD. Increased appetite (choice B) is also less likely with SSRIs. Dry mouth (choice D) is a side effect more commonly associated with other classes of medications, such as anticholinergics, rather than SSRIs.

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