a male veteran who recently returned from a war zone has post traumatic stress disorder ptsd and is admitted to the psychiatric ward because of admitt
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Mental Health HESI Quizlet

1. A male veteran who recently returned from a war zone has post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is admitted to the psychiatric ward due to admitted suicidal ideation. On admission, the client’s family informed the healthcare provider that therapy sessions did not seem to be helping. Select only one intervention that has the highest priority.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The highest priority intervention in this scenario is to ensure the safety of the client who is admitted due to suicidal ideation. Removing all shaving equipment is crucial to prevent self-harm or suicide attempts using sharp objects. Administering medication or developing a list of therapy programs can be important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Determining if the client has a suicide plan is also essential but not as urgent as removing potential means for self-harm.

2. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

3. While working with a male client at a community mental health center, the client reports hearing voices that tell him to get a knife from the kitchen and hurt himself. What intervention is most important for the RN to implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial intervention for the RN to implement in this scenario is to prevent the client from accessing the kitchen where potential means of self-harm are available until the hallucination subsides. This immediate action is necessary to ensure the client's safety. While reporting the behavior to the client's case worker for further support is important, addressing the immediate risk of harm takes precedence. Assigning a UAP to stay with the client continually is valuable for ongoing monitoring but is secondary to ensuring immediate safety. Documenting the behavior in the client's record and notifying the healthcare provider are essential steps in the care process; however, they should follow actions taken to ensure the client's immediate safety.

4. Child protective services have removed 10-year-old Christopher from his parents' home due to neglect. Christopher reveals to the nurse that he considers the woman next door his 'nice' mom, that he loves school, and gets above-average grades. The strongest explanation of this response is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Resilience is the ability to adapt and cope with adverse situations. In this case, Christopher's positive outlook, love for school, and good academic performance despite experiencing neglect demonstrate resilience. Choice A, 'Temperament,' refers to an individual's natural behavioral style and would not fully explain Christopher's response. Genetic factors (Choice B) are not directly related to his ability to cope with neglect. Choice D, 'Paradoxical effects of neglect,' does not fit the situation as Christopher's positive response is more indicative of resilience than paradoxical effects.

5. The client states, “It seems strange that I don’t have a TV in my room.” Which statement would be best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because clients with depression or psychosis may interpret TV as sending messages, so it is often removed to prevent this risk. Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the client's concern and may not be feasible. Choice C is incorrect because it diverts from the client's immediate issue regarding the TV. Choice D is incorrect because it does not address the client's specific concern and instead focuses on the activity level.

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