Nursing Elites

1. A female high school teacher who was a child of alcoholic parents seeks counseling at the community health clinic because of depression over a student who was killed by a drunk driver. After several weeks of counseling, which client behavior is the best indicator that the client is coping well with anxiety related to the student’s death?

• A. Signs a safety contract with the nurse agreeing not to hurt herself or others
• B. Confronts her parents about the hurt she felt as a child of alcoholic parents
• C. Becomes the faculty sponsor for Students Against Drunk Driving (SADD)
• D. Describes her feelings about the student’s death in detail

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Becoming the faculty sponsor for Students Against Drunk Driving (SADD) is the best indicator that the client is coping well with anxiety related to the student’s death. This choice demonstrates active involvement in preventing similar tragedies, showing that the client is channeling her emotions into positive action and advocacy. Option A, signing a safety contract, is important for safety but does not directly address coping with the anxiety related to the student's death. Option B, confronting her parents about past hurt, may be beneficial for personal growth but does not directly reflect coping with the current situation. Option D, describing feelings in detail, is a positive step in therapy but does not necessarily indicate coping well with the anxiety related to the student's death.

2. A client who is admitted to the mental health unit reports shortness of breath and dizziness. The client tells the nurse, “I feel like I’m going to die.” Which nursing problem should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Mood disturbance
• B. Moderate anxiety
• C. Altered thoughts
• D. Social isolation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moderate anxiety. When a client presents with symptoms such as shortness of breath, dizziness, and a fear of dying, it indicates moderate anxiety. Anxiety can manifest physically with symptoms like these. Mood disturbance (choice A) refers to a change in mood, while altered thoughts (choice C) relate to cognitive changes. Social isolation (choice D) involves a lack of social interaction, which is not the primary concern in this scenario where the client is experiencing acute anxiety symptoms.

3. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Decrease in manic episodes.
• B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
• C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
• D. Increased sleep duration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

4. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement for a male client with schizophrenia who is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit?

• A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
• B. Isolate the client from other clients.
• C. Administer a PRN sedative.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Echolalia, the constant repetition of what others are saying, can be disruptive to the therapeutic environment. The most appropriate intervention is to escort the client to his room. This action provides the client with a private space where he can engage in the behavior without disturbing other clients. Avoiding acknowledgment of the behavior (Choice A) may not address the issue and could lead to increased annoyance among other clients. Isolating the client (Choice B) may have negative psychological effects and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for safety concerns. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be considered only as a last resort and if other de-escalation techniques have been unsuccessful.

5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing behavioral therapy. Which outcome should the nurse recognize as an indication that the client is responding positively to therapy?

• A. The client reports increased frequency of obsessive thoughts.
• B. The client demonstrates a decrease in compulsive behaviors.
• C. The client expresses a desire to leave therapy early.
• D. The client avoids participating in exposure tasks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A decrease in compulsive behaviors is a positive response to behavioral therapy for OCD. Behavioral therapy aims to reduce these behaviors and promote healthier coping mechanisms. Option A, reporting an increased frequency of obsessive thoughts, would indicate a lack of improvement or worsening of symptoms. Option C, expressing a desire to leave therapy early, suggests resistance or dissatisfaction with therapy. Option D, avoiding participation in exposure tasks, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is commonly used in OCD treatment to help clients confront their fears and reduce anxiety.

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