Nursing Elites

1. A young adult female visits the mental health clinic complaining of diarrhea, headache, and muscle aches. She is afebrile, denies chills, and all laboratory findings are within normal limits. During the physical assessment, the client tells the RN that her sister thinks she is neurotic and calls her a hypochondriac. Which response is best for the RN to provide?

• A. Unless your sister has a medical education, ignore her comments.
• B. I can hear that your sister comments are over-whelming you.
• C. Do you think it’s possible that you might be a hypochondriac?
• D. Besides your sister’s comments, what in your life is troubling you?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acknowledging the impact of the sister's comments on the client helps validate the client's feelings and supports therapeutic dialogue.

2. Which therapeutic communication statement might a psychiatric-mental health registered nurse use when a patient's nursing diagnosis is altered thought processes?

• A. I know you say you hear voices, but I cannot hear them.
• B. Stop listening to the voices, they are NOT real.
• C. You say you hear voices, what are they telling you?
• D. Please tell the voices to leave you alone for now.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because it acknowledges the patient's experience of hearing voices, showing empathy and exploring the content of the hallucinations. This type of therapeutic communication encourages the patient to express their thoughts and feelings without judgment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they either deny the patient's experience, dismiss the hallucinations as not real, or suggest eliminating them, which can be perceived as invalidating the patient's feelings and experiences.

3. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

4. To evaluate the effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral techniques, which client outcomes should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Relates insights into problematic relationships
• B. Demonstrates a healthy relationship with her husband
• C. Describes how the family can resolve problems
• D. Changes thought patterns related to problem-solving

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cognitive-behavioral therapy focuses on changing thought patterns by guiding the client to engage in problem-solving strategies to address the current situation. This approach helps individuals modify negative thinking patterns and develop more adaptive ways to cope with challenges. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they may be important aspects to consider in therapy, the primary focus in cognitive-behavioral therapy is on identifying and changing negative thought patterns rather than exploring relationships or family problem-solving skills.

5. A male client approaches the RN with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, “My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out!” The RN recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?

• A. Denial.
• B. Projection.
• C. Rationalization.
• D. Splitting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. Projection involves attributing one's own unacceptable feelings or thoughts to others, as seen in the client’s accusations of his roommate’s behavior. In this scenario, the client is projecting his own anger and potential for violence onto his roommate. Choice A, Denial, involves refusing to acknowledge some aspect of reality, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice C, Rationalization, is a defense mechanism where logical reasons are given to justify behaviors that are actually based on unacceptable motives, which is not demonstrated by the client's behavior. Choice D, Splitting, is a defense mechanism where a person sees others as all good or all bad, not applicable in this case as the client is not portraying extreme views of his roommate.

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