Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is developing unit policies that will include nursing guidelines for maintaining a therapeutic milieu. Which interventions should be included when providing a therapeutic milieu in an inpatient setting?

• A. Opportunities to contribute to one's treatment plan.
• B. One-on-one dialogue sessions with the therapist.
• C. Regularly scheduled unit activities for peer interaction.
• D. Home visits to reintegrate into the family.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse is responsible for maintaining a therapeutic milieu in an inpatient setting, which involves creating a secure and structured environment that promotes client safety and offers opportunities for clients to learn healthy coping skills. Regularly scheduled unit activities for peer interaction help foster socialization, support, and a sense of community among clients. Choices A and B are valuable interventions in mental health care but do not directly relate to creating a therapeutic milieu in an inpatient setting. Choice D, home visits, would typically occur post-discharge and focus on community reintegration, rather than maintaining a therapeutic milieu within the inpatient setting.

2. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

3. An adolescent with anorexia nervosa is participating in a cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) program. Which behavior indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Client adheres to a meal plan and gains weight.
• B. Client discusses the impact of the disorder on family.
• C. Client expresses a desire to change behavior.
• D. Client reduces the frequency of binge eating.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In treating anorexia nervosa with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), the primary goals are to normalize eating behaviors and achieve weight restoration. Therefore, adherence to a meal plan and weight gain are crucial indicators of treatment effectiveness. While discussing the impact of the disorder on the family (Choice B) can be beneficial for therapy, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of CBT in treating anorexia nervosa. Expressing a desire to change behavior (Choice C) is a positive step, but actual behavioral changes such as adhering to a meal plan are more indicative of progress. Reducing the frequency of binge eating (Choice D) is more relevant for other eating disorders like bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa.

4. A client with major depressive disorder is beginning a new antidepressant medication. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.”
• B. “You should see immediate effects of the medication.”
• C. “You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.”
• D. “Avoid discussing your symptoms with your therapist.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the discharge teaching for a client starting a new antidepressant medication is that “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.” This is because antidepressants often require several weeks before the individual starts to feel the full therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because immediate effects are not typically seen with antidepressants. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication abruptly can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects. Choice D is incorrect as open communication with the therapist is crucial for effective management of major depressive disorder.

5. In pediatric mental health, there is a lack of sufficient numbers of community-based resources and providers, resulting in long waiting lists for services. This has resulted in:

• A. Children of color and those in poor economic conditions being underserved
• B. Increased stress in the family unit
• C. Markedly increased funding
• D. Premature termination of services

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Premature termination of services.' The lack of sufficient numbers of community-based resources and providers, along with long waiting lists, can lead to premature termination of services for children in need of mental health support. Choice A, 'Children of color and those in poor economic conditions being underserved,' is not directly related to the consequence mentioned in the question. Choice B, 'Increased stress in the family unit,' while a potential consequence, is not explicitly stated in the question as a direct result of the lack of resources. Choice C, 'Markedly increased funding,' is not a consequence but rather a potential solution to address the lack of resources.

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