Nursing Elites

1. A client with an eating disorder tells the RN, 'I’ve been eating only 400 calories per day and have been taking diuretics to lose weight.' What is the RN’s best response?

• A. “Your diet is very harmful and needs to be changed immediately.”
• B. “It’s important to monitor your calorie intake carefully.”
• C. “Have you noticed any physical effects from this low-calorie diet?”
• D. “The diuretics could be causing your body to lose essential nutrients.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D. By addressing the potential harm of diuretics and the low-calorie diet, the nurse effectively addresses both aspects of the client's disordered eating behavior. Choice A is too direct and does not provide information on the specific issue of diuretics. Choice B focuses solely on monitoring calorie intake without addressing the use of diuretics. Choice C inquires about physical effects but does not address the overall risks associated with diuretics and low-calorie intake.

2. The nurse accepts a transfer to the mental health unit and understands that the client is distractible and is exhibiting a decreased ability to concentrate. The nurse has only 15 minutes to talk with the client. To develop a treatment plan for this client, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Motivation for treatment
• B. History of substance use
• C. Medication compliance
• D. Mental status examination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A mental status examination is the most important assessment for the nurse to obtain in this scenario. It provides a comprehensive view of the client's current cognitive functioning, including their level of alertness, orientation, memory, attention, and thought process. Understanding the client's mental status is crucial for developing an appropriate treatment plan. The other options, such as motivation for treatment, history of substance use, and medication compliance, are important aspects to consider but may not directly address the client's current cognitive state and immediate treatment needs as effectively as a mental status examination.

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.

4. Which factors tend to increase the difficulty of diagnosing young children who demonstrate behaviors associated with mental illness? Select all that apply.

• A. Limited language skills
• B. Level of cognitive development
• C. Level of emotional development
• D. Parental denial that a problem exists

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Level of cognitive development. The level of cognitive development is a crucial factor that can complicate the diagnosis of mental illness in young children. Young children may not have fully developed cognitive abilities to express their symptoms or understand diagnostic procedures, making it challenging for healthcare providers to assess their mental health accurately. Limited language skills (choice A) can hinder communication but are not as significant as cognitive development in diagnosing mental illness. Emotional development (choice C) is important but may not be as directly linked to the diagnostic challenges as cognitive development. Parental denial (choice D), although a potential barrier, is not a factor inherent to the child's characteristics affecting the diagnostic process.

5. Narcan was administered to an adult client following a suicide attempt with an overdose of hydrocodone bitartrate (Vicodin). Within 15 minutes, the client is alert and oriented. In planning nursing care, which intervention has the highest priority at this time?

• A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• B. Obtain the client’s serum Vicodin level.
• C. Observe the client for further narcotic effects.
• D. Determine the client’s reason for attempting suicide.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the client for further narcotic effects is the priority at this time. It is crucial to monitor the client closely to prevent a relapse of symptoms or potential complications from the overdose. Encouraging fluid intake is important for overall health but not the priority after an overdose. Obtaining serum Vicodin levels may be needed later but does not address the immediate need to monitor for ongoing effects. Determining the reason for the suicide attempt is vital for psychological assessment but should come after ensuring the client's physical stability.

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