Nursing Elites

1. A client with an eating disorder tells the RN, 'I’ve been eating only 400 calories per day and have been taking diuretics to lose weight.' What is the RN’s best response?

• A. “Your diet is very harmful and needs to be changed immediately.”
• B. “It’s important to monitor your calorie intake carefully.”
• C. “Have you noticed any physical effects from this low-calorie diet?”
• D. “The diuretics could be causing your body to lose essential nutrients.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D. By addressing the potential harm of diuretics and the low-calorie diet, the nurse effectively addresses both aspects of the client's disordered eating behavior. Choice A is too direct and does not provide information on the specific issue of diuretics. Choice B focuses solely on monitoring calorie intake without addressing the use of diuretics. Choice C inquires about physical effects but does not address the overall risks associated with diuretics and low-calorie intake.

2. A male client with known auditory hallucinations begins talking loudly and gesturing wildly while in the unit’s day room. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a PRN sedative.
• B. Sit in the chair next to the client.
• C. Escort the client to his room.
• D. Listen to what the client is saying.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a client experiencing auditory hallucinations, it is crucial for the nurse to first listen to what the client is saying. Auditory hallucinations may hold significance to the client, and by actively listening, the nurse can gather information about the content and context of the hallucinations. This information helps the nurse assess the client's current state, emotional responses, and the potential triggers for the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice A) should not be the initial action as it may suppress important information and feelings the client is trying to communicate. Sitting next to the client (Choice B) may not be appropriate without understanding the situation better. Escorting the client to his room (Choice C) may escalate the situation without addressing the underlying cause of the behavior, which can be better understood through active listening.

3. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is struggling with flashbacks and nightmares. Which therapeutic approach should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy.
• B. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
• C. Medication management only.
• D. Relaxation training and mindfulness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) experiencing flashbacks and nightmares would benefit from cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) in the care plan. CBT is an evidence-based therapeutic approach that focuses on identifying and changing negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with PTSD symptoms. This helps the client learn coping strategies to manage distressing symptoms like flashbacks and nightmares.\nIncorrect Choices Rationale: B) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not indicated for PTSD and is typically used for severe depression that has not responded to other treatments. C) Medication management alone may not address the underlying cognitive and behavioral aspects of PTSD. D) Relaxation training and mindfulness can be helpful as adjunctive therapies but may not be as effective as CBT in specifically targeting and modifying PTSD symptoms.

4. The RN is admitting a male client who takes lithium carbonate (Eskalith) twice a day. Which information should the RN report to the HCP immediately?

• A. Short-term memory loss.
• B. Five-pound weight gain.
• C. Decreased affect.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are signs of potential lithium toxicity, which is a serious condition requiring immediate attention. These symptoms can indicate a dangerous level of lithium in the body that can lead to severe complications. Short-term memory loss (A), five-pound weight gain (B), and decreased affect (C) are important to monitor but are not as immediately concerning as symptoms of potential toxicity like nausea and vomiting.

5. A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
• B. Provide a detailed schedule of daily activities.
• C. Discuss the importance of medication adherence.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in group therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.

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