Nursing Elites

1. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine would be most accurate in stating:

• A. The test needs to be repeated following a 12-hour fast.
• B. It appears you aren't following the prescribed diabetic diet.
• C. It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months.
• D. Your insulin regimen needs to be significantly altered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 3 months. This test is used to assess long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for an HbA1c test. Choice B is judgmental and not supported by the information provided. Choice D is not the most accurate statement to make based on the HbA1c result; adjusting insulin would depend on a more comprehensive assessment of the client's overall diabetes management.

2. A client with Addison's disease is receiving corticosteroid therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Weight loss
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with Addison's disease is receiving corticosteroid therapy, the nurse should monitor for hypertension as a potential side effect. Corticosteroids can lead to hypertension by causing fluid retention and increased blood volume. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is not a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy; instead, hyperglycemia is more likely. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a typical side effect of corticosteroid therapy; in fact, weight gain is more common due to fluid retention and increased appetite. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a potential side effect of Addison's disease itself due to adrenal insufficiency, but it is not directly caused by corticosteroid therapy.

3. A healthcare professional caring for a client who has been receiving intravenous diuretics suspects that the client is experiencing a deficient fluid volume. Which assessment finding would the healthcare professional note in a client with this condition?

• A. Lung congestion
• B. Decreased hematocrit
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Decreased central venous pressure (CVP)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Decreased central venous pressure (CVP) is the correct assessment finding in a client with deficient fluid volume. This is because a decrease in CVP indicates reduced blood volume returning to the heart, which is consistent with hypovolemia. Lung congestion (Choice A) would be more indicative of fluid volume excess, not deficiency. Decreased hematocrit (Choice B) may be seen in conditions such as anemia but is not specific to deficient fluid volume. Increased blood pressure (Choice C) is not typically associated with deficient fluid volume; in fact, hypovolemia often leads to decreased blood pressure.

4. A female client with physical findings suggestive of a hyperpituitary condition undergoes an extensive diagnostic workup. Test results reveal a pituitary tumor, necessitating a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The evening before the surgery, Nurse Jacob reviews preoperative and postoperative instructions provided to the client earlier. Which postoperative instruction should the nurse emphasize?

• A. You must lie flat for 24 hours after surgery.
• B. You must avoid coughing, sneezing, and blowing your nose.
• C. You must restrict your fluid intake.
• D. You must report ringing in your ears immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, it is crucial to avoid activities such as coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose to prevent an increase in intracranial pressure or the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Coughing, sneezing, or nose blowing can strain the surgical site, potentially leading to complications. Lying flat for 24 hours is not typically required after this surgery. Fluid intake should be encouraged to prevent dehydration. Ringing in the ears is not a common complication associated with this type of surgery.

5. A client with type 1 DM is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse should prioritize which action?

• A. Administering intravenous fluids.
• B. Administering oral glucose.
• C. Administering a fever-reducing medication.
• D. Administering oxygen therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering intravenous fluids is the priority in treating DKA for several reasons. DKA is characterized by severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to hyperglycemia. IV fluids help to correct dehydration, restore electrolyte balance, and decrease blood glucose levels. Administering oral glucose (Choice B) would be contraindicated in DKA as the primary issue is high blood glucose levels. Administering a fever-reducing medication (Choice C) is not the priority in managing DKA. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) may be necessary in some cases, but correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances take precedence in the management of DKA.

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