Nursing Elites

1. The client with Addison's disease is receiving education on managing the condition. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Increase your sodium intake during periods of stress.
• B. Avoid all types of exercise.
• C. Decrease your fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• D. Stop corticosteroid therapy once symptoms improve.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include for a client with Addison's disease is to increase sodium intake during periods of stress. In Addison's disease, there is a deficiency of aldosterone leading to sodium loss. Increasing sodium intake helps to compensate for this loss and prevent complications. Choice B is incorrect as exercise is beneficial for overall health but should be done in moderation. Choice C is incorrect as fluid intake should be adequate to prevent dehydration since clients with Addison's disease are prone to electrolyte imbalances. Choice D is incorrect as corticosteroid therapy is essential for managing Addison's disease and should not be discontinued abruptly without medical guidance.

2. A male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide (Tolinase). Which of the following is the most important laboratory test for confirming this disorder?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Serum sodium level
• C. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
• D. Serum osmolarity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Serum osmolarity is the most important laboratory test for confirming hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). HHNS is characterized by severe hyperglycemia and dehydration without ketoacidosis. Elevated serum osmolarity indicates increased solute concentration in the blood, which is a hallmark of HHNS. Serum potassium level (Choice A) is important in conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis rather than HHNS. Serum sodium level (Choice B) may be affected in HHNS but is not the primary test for confirming the disorder. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values (Choice C) are more useful in assessing acid-base status, which is not the primary concern in HHNS.

3. A psychological contract exists between staff members and nurse managers. Which of the following best describes this relationship?

• A. Nurse managers provide positive evaluations, and in turn, staff members do what managers ask of them.
• B. Nurse managers coordinate multiple departments and supervise multiple staff members.
• C. Staff members do what managers ask of them and, in turn, are rewarded through assignments, promotions, and evaluations.
• D. Nurse managers advocate for staff and support nursing roles and ethical practice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a psychological contract between staff members and nurse managers, staff members are expected to fulfill the requests of managers, and in return, they are rewarded with assignments, promotions, and evaluations. This reciprocal relationship forms the basis of the psychological contract. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately capture the essence of the psychological contract. While nurse managers may provide positive evaluations, coordinate departments, supervise staff, advocate for staff, and support nursing roles, these actions alone do not define the specific reciprocal nature of the psychological contract outlined in choice C.

4. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that this medication is used to:

• A. Increase metabolism
• B. Reduce anxiety
• C. Decrease heart rate
• D. Increase blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker commonly used in the management of hyperthyroidism. It works by blocking the effects of adrenaline, resulting in a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not increase metabolism; instead, it may have a mild inhibitory effect. Choice B is incorrect as propranolol is not primarily used to reduce anxiety, although it may have some anxiolytic effects. Choice D is incorrect as propranolol actually decreases blood pressure by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart and blood vessels.

5. A client is taking NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse instructs the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

• A. 2-4 hours after administration
• B. 6-14 hours after administration
• C. 16-18 hours after administration
• D. 18-24 hours after administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 6-14 hours after administration. NPH insulin has an onset of action within 1-2 hours, a peak action at 6-14 hours, and a duration of action of 16-24 hours. The peak action period, which is when the risk of hypoglycemia is highest, falls between 6-14 hours after administration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical action profile of NPH insulin.

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