Nursing Elites

1. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?

• A. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.
• B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
• C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
• D. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressings are utilized in this case to debride the wound by removing dead tissue and promoting healing by secondary intention. Choice A is incorrect as wet-to-dry dressings do not provide a moist wound environment; instead, they promote drying to aid in debridement. Choice B is incorrect because their primary purpose is not to protect the wound but to remove dead tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the main function of wet-to-dry dressings is not to prevent the entrance of microorganisms or minimize wound discomfort.

2. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

• A. Oral anticoagulants
• B. Anabolic steroids
• C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• D. Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

3. A healthcare professional is focusing on improving the ability to multitask without losing focus and to turn problems into opportunities. Which of the following leadership theories describes the professional's focus?

• A. Emotional intelligence
• B. Motivation theory
• C. Situational leadership theory
• D. Transformational leadership theory

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Motivation theory explains that individuals act based on what they want to achieve, focusing on goals and desires. In this scenario, the healthcare professional's emphasis on improving multitasking skills and problem-solving aligns with the essence of motivation theory. Emotional intelligence primarily pertains to understanding and managing emotions, not specifically related to multitasking and problem-solving. Situational leadership theory emphasizes adapting leadership styles based on the situation and followers, not directly related to individual focus improvement. Transformational leadership theory focuses on inspiring and motivating followers to achieve common goals rather than individual task management and problem-solving skills.

4. Effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future. Which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future?

• A. Involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision.
• B. Encourage staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements.
• C. Critically analyze and discuss advances in practice with other nurses on staff.
• D. Actively listen to the recommendations of others.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best method for communicating a vision for the future is to involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision. This approach fosters ownership and commitment among team members, as they feel part of the vision-building process and understand how their daily tasks contribute to achieving that vision. Choice B, encouraging staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements, is important for fostering communication but doesn't directly address creating and communicating a vision. Choice C, critically analyzing and discussing advances in practice with other nurses, focuses on professional development and knowledge sharing rather than specifically communicating a future vision. Choice D, actively listening to recommendations, is valuable for gathering input but may not be sufficient on its own for effectively communicating a future vision.

5. What clinical feature distinguishes a hypoglycemic reaction from a ketoacidosis reaction?

• A. Blurred vision.
• B. Diaphoresis.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Weakness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diaphoresis is the correct answer because it is more characteristic of hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia typically presents with symptoms such as diaphoresis (excessive sweating), palpitations, tremors, and anxiety. On the other hand, ketoacidosis is associated with symptoms such as fruity breath, deep and labored breathing (Kussmaul respirations), nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Blurred vision can occur in both hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis due to metabolic disturbances affecting the eyes. Weakness is a nonspecific symptom that can be present in both conditions, making it less helpful in distinguishing between the two.

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