Nursing Elites

1. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?

• A. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.
• B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
• C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
• D. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressings are utilized in this case to debride the wound by removing dead tissue and promoting healing by secondary intention. Choice A is incorrect as wet-to-dry dressings do not provide a moist wound environment; instead, they promote drying to aid in debridement. Choice B is incorrect because their primary purpose is not to protect the wound but to remove dead tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the main function of wet-to-dry dressings is not to prevent the entrance of microorganisms or minimize wound discomfort.

2. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

3. What clinical feature distinguishes a hypoglycemic reaction from a ketoacidosis reaction?

• A. Blurred vision.
• B. Diaphoresis.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Weakness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diaphoresis is the correct answer because it is more characteristic of hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia typically presents with symptoms such as diaphoresis (excessive sweating), palpitations, tremors, and anxiety. On the other hand, ketoacidosis is associated with symptoms such as fruity breath, deep and labored breathing (Kussmaul respirations), nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Blurred vision can occur in both hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis due to metabolic disturbances affecting the eyes. Weakness is a nonspecific symptom that can be present in both conditions, making it less helpful in distinguishing between the two.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with pheochromocytoma. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider implement?

• A. Administer beta-blockers to control blood pressure
• B. Encourage a high-sodium diet
• C. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia
• D. Restrict fluid intake to prevent edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pheochromocytoma is to administer beta-blockers to control blood pressure. Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting tumor that can cause severe hypertension. Beta-blockers are used to block the effects of catecholamines and help control blood pressure in these clients. Encouraging a high-sodium diet (Choice B) would not be appropriate as it can worsen hypertension. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice C) is not directly related to managing pheochromocytoma. Restricting fluid intake (Choice D) may lead to dehydration and is not a recommended intervention for this condition.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin
• B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention in a client with DKA is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline for fluid resuscitation. This is crucial to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion, addressing the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in DKA. Administering insulin without addressing the dehydration can lead to further complications. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important but is not the first priority; potassium levels can shift with fluid resuscitation. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is helpful in assessing acid-base status but is not the initial priority compared to fluid resuscitation.

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