HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6
1. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?
- A. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.
- B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
- C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
- D. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressings are utilized in this case to debride the wound by removing dead tissue and promoting healing by secondary intention. Choice A is incorrect as wet-to-dry dressings do not provide a moist wound environment; instead, they promote drying to aid in debridement. Choice B is incorrect because their primary purpose is not to protect the wound but to remove dead tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the main function of wet-to-dry dressings is not to prevent the entrance of microorganisms or minimize wound discomfort.
2. Clinical nursing assessment for a patient with microangiopathy who has manifested impaired peripheral arterial circulation includes all of the following except:
- A. Integumentary inspection for the presence of brown spots on the lower extremities.
- B. Observation for paleness of the lower extremities.
- C. Observation for blanching of the feet after the legs are elevated for 60 seconds.
- D. Palpation for increased pulse volume in the arteries of the lower extremities.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a patient with impaired peripheral arterial circulation, clinical nursing assessment should include integumentary inspection for the presence of brown spots, observation for paleness of the lower extremities, and observation for blanching of the feet after the legs are elevated for 60 seconds. Palpation for increased pulse volume in the arteries of the lower extremities is not consistent with impaired circulation, as pulses are typically diminished in this condition. Therefore, palpation for increased pulse volume is not relevant to the assessment of impaired peripheral arterial circulation.
3. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?
- A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
- C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.
4. A healthcare provider is educating a client with DM on recognizing symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which symptom should the healthcare provider mention?
- A. Increased thirst
- B. Frequent urination
- C. Sweating
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct symptom to mention when educating a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) on hypoglycemia is sweating. Sweating is a common symptom of hypoglycemia as it occurs due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system in response to low blood sugar levels. Increased thirst (Choice A) and frequent urination (Choice B) are more indicative of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) rather than hypoglycemia. Weight loss (Choice D) is not a typical symptom associated with hypoglycemia.
5. A client with hyperparathyroidism is at risk for which of the following complications?
- A. Hypocalcemia
- B. Osteoporosis
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with hyperparathyroidism is at risk for osteoporosis, not hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, or hyponatremia. Hyperparathyroidism results in increased levels of parathyroid hormone, which causes excessive breakdown of bone tissue to release calcium into the bloodstream. This process can lead to weakened bones and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Hypocalcemia is unlikely in hyperparathyroidism as the condition is characterized by elevated calcium levels due to the abnormal activity of the parathyroid glands. Hypokalemia and hyponatremia are not directly associated with hyperparathyroidism; they are more commonly linked to other conditions affecting potassium and sodium levels in the body.
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