Nursing Elites

1. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?

• A. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.
• B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
• C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
• D. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressings are utilized in this case to debride the wound by removing dead tissue and promoting healing by secondary intention. Choice A is incorrect as wet-to-dry dressings do not provide a moist wound environment; instead, they promote drying to aid in debridement. Choice B is incorrect because their primary purpose is not to protect the wound but to remove dead tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the main function of wet-to-dry dressings is not to prevent the entrance of microorganisms or minimize wound discomfort.

2. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?

• A. Tetanic contractions
• B. Neck vein distention
• C. Weight loss
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.

3. An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:

• A. 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• B. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• C. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• D. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. In the treatment of hypoglycemia, it is important to administer a specific amount of simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels effectively without causing hyperglycemia. 10 to 15 g of simple carbohydrates, such as glucose tablets, fruit juice, or regular soft drinks, is recommended to rapidly increase blood sugar levels in clients experiencing hypoglycemia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either provide too little or too much glucose, which may not effectively treat the hypoglycemic episode or may lead to rebound hyperglycemia.

4. A female adult client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which 'related-to' phrase should the nurse add?

• A. Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures
• B. Related to exhaustion secondary to an accelerated metabolic rate
• C. Related to edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces
• D. Related to tetany secondary to a decreased serum calcium level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures.' In chronic hyperparathyroidism, bone demineralization occurs due to the excessive release of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium resorption from bones. This process weakens the bones, making the client prone to pathologic fractures. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the increased risk of injury associated with chronic hyperparathyroidism. Exhaustion, edema, dry skin, and tetany are not the primary risks for injury in this client population.

5. An RN enters a patient's room to place an indwelling urinary catheter, as ordered by the healthcare professional. The client is alert and oriented and tells the RN he wants to leave the hospital now and not receive further treatment. Which of the following actions by the RN would be considered false imprisonment?

• A. The RN tells the client he is not allowed to leave until the physician has released him.
• B. The RN asks the client why he wishes to leave.
• C. The RN asks the client to explain what he understands about his medical diagnosis.
• D. The RN asks the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: False imprisonment occurs when a person is prevented from leaving against their will. By telling the patient they are not allowed to leave, the RN is restricting the patient’s freedom unlawfully. Choice B is focused on understanding the patient's reasons for leaving and does not involve restricting the patient's freedom. Choice C aims to assess the patient's understanding of their medical condition, which is unrelated to false imprisonment. Choice D involves obtaining consent for leaving against medical advice, which is a legal and ethical process and not false imprisonment.

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